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Bugün : 27 Şubat 2020, Perşembe
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2006 Tıpta Uzmanlık Eğitimi Giriş Sınavı (TUS) Eylül Dönemi Yabancı Dil Sınavı İngilizce Testi

2006 Tıpta Uzmanlık Eğitimi Giriş Sınavı (TUS) Eylül Dönemi Yabancı Dil Sınavı İngilizce Testi, 52 kere görüntülendi.

2006 Tıpta Uzmanlık Eğitimi Giriş Sınavı (TUS) Eylül Dönemi Yabancı Dil Sınavı İngilizce Testi soruları ile bilginizi test etmek istiyorsanız, 2006 yılında ÖSYM tarafından hazırlanan bu testi çözebilirsiniz. 2006 Tıpta Uzmanlık Eğitimi Giriş Sınavı (TUS) Eylül Dönemi Yabancı Dil Sınavı İngilizce Testi sorularını çözdükten sonra sayfanın altında bulunan cevap anahtarı ile vermiş olduğunuz cevapların doğruluğunu kontrol edebilirsiniz. 100 sorudan oluşan bu testi çözmek isteyen ziyaretçilerimize başarılar dileriz.

Sorular

1.

Decades of biomedical research in developed nations have resulted in many effective interventions that affect cancer incidence and mortality. Examples include hepatitis B vaccine for liver cancer, screening methods for cervical cancer, foecal occult blood test for colorectal cancer, mammography for breast cancer, and surgical prevention for those at high risk of colorectal cancers. Undoubtedly, increased coverage of the above technologies, especially those that involve early detection, would help reduce further the burden of cancers. There has, however, been less success with respect to other cancers: sputum cytology and chest radiographs for lung cancer have not been promising, and multiple chest radiographs might even be harmful; and vaccines for H.Pylori and HPV are still under investigation. The efficacy of chemotherapy and radiotherapy varies from cancer to cancer and depends on multiple technical and biological factors, such as stage of cancer.

Parçaya göre, yıllardır yapılmakta olan biyomedikal araştırmalar aşağıdakilerden hangisinde gerçekleştirilmiştir?

A) Gelişmekte olan ülkelerde

B) Kanserlerin daha sık görüldüğü yaş ortalaması yüksek toplumlarda

C) Koruyucu hekimliğin ön planda tutulduğu yerlerde

D) Kanser sıklıklarının yüksek olduğu sanayileşmiş ülkelerde

E) Gelişmiş milletlerde

2.

Decades of biomedical research in developed nations have resulted in many effective interventions that affect cancer incidence and mortality. Examples include hepatitis B vaccine for liver cancer, screening methods for cervical cancer, foecal occult blood test for colorectal cancer, mammography for breast cancer, and surgical prevention for those at high risk of colorectal cancers. Undoubtedly, increased coverage of the above technologies, especially those that involve early detection, would help reduce further the burden of cancers. There has, however, been less success with respect to other cancers: sputum cytology and chest radiographs for lung cancer have not been promising, and multiple chest radiographs might even be harmful; and vaccines for H.Pylori and HPV are still under investigation. The efficacy of chemotherapy and radiotherapy varies from cancer to cancer and depends on multiple technical and biological factors, such as stage of cancer.

Parçaya göre, aşağıdakilerden hangisi etkili girişimlerle sıklık ve mortalite hızları değiştirilebilmiş kanser tiplerinden biri değildir?

A) Akciğer kanseri

B) Karaciğer kanseri

C) Serviks kanseri

D) Kalın barsak, rektum kanseri

E) Meme kanseri

3.

Decades of biomedical research in developed nations have resulted in many effective interventions that affect cancer incidence and mortality. Examples include hepatitis B vaccine for liver cancer, screening methods for cervical cancer, foecal occult blood test for colorectal cancer, mammography for breast cancer, and surgical prevention for those at high risk of colorectal cancers. Undoubtedly, increased coverage of the above technologies, especially those that involve early detection, would help reduce further the burden of cancers. There has, however, been less success with respect to other cancers: sputum cytology and chest radiographs for lung cancer have not been promising, and multiple chest radiographs might even be harmful; and vaccines for H.Pylori and HPV are still under investigation. The efficacy of chemotherapy and radiotherapy varies from cancer to cancer and depends on multiple technical and biological factors, such as stage of cancer.

Parçaya göre, özellikle aşağıdakilerden hangisini kapsayan teknolojilerin daha yaygın kullanımıyla, kanserlerin görülme sıklıkları daha da azaltılabilecektir?

A) Koruyucu aşıları

B) Tarama programlarını

C) Erken tanıyı

D) Kemoterapi yöntemlerini

E) Radyoterapi yöntemlerini

4.

Decades of biomedical research in developed nations have resulted in many effective interventions that affect cancer incidence and mortality. Examples include hepatitis B vaccine for liver cancer, screening methods for cervical cancer, foecal occult blood test for colorectal cancer, mammography for breast cancer, and surgical prevention for those at high risk of colorectal cancers. Undoubtedly, increased coverage of the above technologies, especially those that involve early detection, would help reduce further the burden of cancers. There has, however, been less success with respect to other cancers: sputum cytology and chest radiographs for lung cancer have not been promising, and multiple chest radiographs might even be harmful; and vaccines for H.Pylori and HPV are still under investigation. The efficacy of chemotherapy and radiotherapy varies from cancer to cancer and depends on multiple technical and biological factors, such as stage of cancer.

Parçada aşağıdakilerden hangisi daha az başarı nedeniyle, ümit vadetmeyen yöntemlere örnek gösterilmiştir?

A) Mamografi

B) Dışkıda gizli kan

C) Serviks kanseri taraması

D) Balgam sitolojisi

E) Hepatit B aşısı

5.

Decades of biomedical research in developed nations have resulted in many effective interventions that affect cancer incidence and mortality. Examples include hepatitis B vaccine for liver cancer, screening methods for cervical cancer, foecal occult blood test for colorectal cancer, mammography for breast cancer, and surgical prevention for those at high risk of colorectal cancers. Undoubtedly, increased coverage of the above technologies, especially those that involve early detection, would help reduce further the burden of cancers. There has, however, been less success with respect to other cancers: sputum cytology and chest radiographs for lung cancer have not been promising, and multiple chest radiographs might even be harmful; and vaccines for H.Pylori and HPV are still under investigation. The efficacy of chemotherapy and radiotherapy varies from cancer to cancer and depends on multiple technical and biological factors, such as stage of cancer.

Parçada aşağıdakilerden hangisinin ümit vadetmediği, hattâ zararlı olabileceği belirtilmiştir?

A) Çok sayıda akciğer grafisi

B) İlaç sektörünün yönlendirdiği biyomedikal araş- tırmalar

C) Kaynakların taramalardan çok, tedavilere yönlendirilmesi

D) Mamografilerde yüksek doz radyasyon kullanılması

E) Radyoterapinin giderek daha yaygın kullanılması

6.

Research has shown that gender differences in health and disease are significant. Coronary heart disease presents in women 10 to 15 years later than it does in men. Men are more likely to present with myocardial infarction as a manifestation of the disease, but women are more likely to die within 1 year of having an initial recognized myocardial infarction. Women are more likely to have comorbidities such as congestive heart failure, hypertension and diabetes. Blood pressure is higher in men than in women of comparable ages until menopause. Then blood pressure in women increases to levels higher than those in men. Women live significantly longer after colon cancer resection than men with comparable disease. Women smokers are more likely to develop lung cancer than men, taking into account baseline exposure, body weight, and body mass index. Men and women respond differently to medications.

Parçaya göre, araştırmalar aşağıdaki konuların hangisindeki cinsiyet farklılıklarının önemli olduğunu ortaya koymuştur?

A) Ölüm oranlarında

B) İlaçların yan etkilerinde

C) Belirtilerin şiddetinde

D) Bağışıklık cevabında

E) Hastalık ve sağlıkta

7.

Research has shown that gender differences in health and disease are significant. Coronary heart disease presents in women 10 to 15 years later than it does in men. Men are more likely to present with myocardial infarction as a manifestation of the disease, but women are more likely to die within 1 year of having an initial recognized myocardial infarction. Women are more likely to have comorbidities such as congestive heart failure, hypertension and diabetes. Blood pressure is higher in men than in women of comparable ages until menopause. Then blood pressure in women increases to levels higher than those in men. Women live significantly longer after colon cancer resection than men with comparable disease. Women smokers are more likely to develop lung cancer than men, taking into account baseline exposure, body weight, and body mass index. Men and women respond differently to medications.

Parçaya göre, aşağıdakilerden hangisi erkeklerde kadınlardan daha erken yaşlarda görülmektedir?

A) Koroner kalp hastalığı

B) Kolon kanseri

C) Akciğer kanseri

D) Obezite

E) Tromboembolik olaylar

8.

Research has shown that gender differences in health and disease are significant. Coronary heart disease presents in women 10 to 15 years later than it does in men. Men are more likely to present with myocardial infarction as a manifestation of the disease, but women are more likely to die within 1 year of having an initial recognized myocardial infarction. Women are more likely to have comorbidities such as congestive heart failure, hypertension and diabetes. Blood pressure is higher in men than in women of comparable ages until menopause. Then blood pressure in women increases to levels higher than those in men. Women live significantly longer after colon cancer resection than men with comparable disease. Women smokers are more likely to develop lung cancer than men, taking into account baseline exposure, body weight, and body mass index. Men and women respond differently to medications.

Parçaya göre, aşağıdakilerden hangisinin kadınlarda görülme sıklığı erkeklerdekinden daha azdır?

A) Enfarktüsü takip eden ilk yılda ölüm

B) Konjestif kalp yetmezliği

C) Diabetes mellitus

D) Hipertansiyon

E) Miyokard enfarktüsü

9.

Research has shown that gender differences in health and disease are significant. Coronary heart disease presents in women 10 to 15 years later than it does in men. Men are more likely to present with myocardial infarction as a manifestation of the disease, but women are more likely to die within 1 year of having an initial recognized myocardial infarction. Women are more likely to have comorbidities such as congestive heart failure, hypertension and diabetes. Blood pressure is higher in men than in women of comparable ages until menopause. Then blood pressure in women increases to levels higher than those in men. Women live significantly longer after colon cancer resection than men with comparable disease. Women smokers are more likely to develop lung cancer than men, taking into account baseline exposure, body weight, and body mass index. Men and women respond differently to medications.

Parçaya göre, aşağıdakilerden hangisi kadınlarda menopozdan sonra erkeklere kıyasla daha yüksek düzeylere çıkar?

A) Vücut kitle indeksi

B) Kan basıncı

C) Vücut ağırlığı

D) Nabız hızı

E) Solunum sıklığı

10.

Research has shown that gender differences in health and disease are significant. Coronary heart disease presents in women 10 to 15 years later than it does in men. Men are more likely to present with myocardial infarction as a manifestation of the disease, but women are more likely to die within 1 year of having an initial recognized myocardial infarction. Women are more likely to have comorbidities such as congestive heart failure, hypertension and diabetes. Blood pressure is higher in men than in women of comparable ages until menopause. Then blood pressure in women increases to levels higher than those in men. Women live significantly longer after colon cancer resection than men with comparable disease. Women smokers are more likely to develop lung cancer than men, taking into account baseline exposure, body weight, and body mass index. Men and women respond differently to medications.

Parçanın yedinci cümlesinde geçen "comparable disease" ifadesi aşağıdakilerin hangisini belirtmektedir?

A) Kolon kanseri

B) Hipertansiyon

C) Koroner kalp hastalığı

D) Akciğer kanseri

E) Miyokard enfarktüsü

11.

If a pregnant woman whose immune status is unknown is exposed to rubella, an antibody test should be performed immediately. Immune women should be reassured. Susceptible pregnant women exposed to rubella should not receive vaccine because of the potential risk of transmission of vaccine virus to the foetus. Susceptible women should undergo repeat serologic testing 3-4 weeks after exposure, and, if they are still seronegative, again 6 weeks after exposure. Seroconversion on either specimen indicates infection, and the mother should be counseled about the risk of transmission to the foetus and the resulting anomalies. For the susceptible pregnant woman exposed to rubella for whom termination of pregnancy is a viable option and for whom timing permits documentation of seroconversion within the period of time when abortion is possible, immune globulin is not recommended, since it may provide an unjustified sense of security, and precludes a positive serologic diagnosis as the basis for termination of pregnancy. However, for the susceptible pregnant woman exposed to rubella for whom abortion is not an option, immunoglobulin should be administered, which reduces the attack rate but does not eliminate the risk of foetal infection. Foetal infection may occur even in the absence of clinical signs in the mother.

Parçaya göre, aşağıdakilerin hangisinde derhal antikor testi yapılmalıdır?

A) Bağışıklık durumuna bakılmaksızın tüm erken gebeliklerde

B) Haftasına bakılmaksızın tüm gebeliklerde

C) Rubellaya mâruz kalan tüm kadınlarda

D) Rubellaya mâruz kalsın ya da kalmasın gebelik öncesi tüm kadınlarda

E) Bağışıklık durumu bilinmeyen ve rubellaya mâruz kalan tüm gebelerde

12.

If a pregnant woman whose immune status is unknown is exposed to rubella, an antibody test should be performed immediately. Immune women should be reassured. Susceptible pregnant women exposed to rubella should not receive vaccine because of the potential risk of transmission of vaccine virus to the foetus. Susceptible women should undergo repeat serologic testing 3-4 weeks after exposure, and, if they are still seronegative, again 6 weeks after exposure. Seroconversion on either specimen indicates infection, and the mother should be counseled about the risk of transmission to the foetus and the resulting anomalies. For the susceptible pregnant woman exposed to rubella for whom termination of pregnancy is a viable option and for whom timing permits documentation of seroconversion within the period of time when abortion is possible, immune globulin is not recommended, since it may provide an unjustified sense of security, and precludes a positive serologic diagnosis as the basis for termination of pregnancy. However, for the susceptible pregnant woman exposed to rubella for whom abortion is not an option, immunoglobulin should be administered, which reduces the attack rate but does not eliminate the risk of foetal infection. Foetal infection may occur even in the absence of clinical signs in the mother.

Parçada gebelere rubella aşısı uygulanması konusunda aşağıdakilerden hangisi söylenmiştir?

A) Zaten bağışık iseler, aşı boş yere yapılmış olur.

B) Bağışık olmayan gebelere rubella aşısı yapılırsa, potansiyel olarak virüsün fetusa geçme riski vardır.

C) Gebelikte uygulanan rubella aşısı potansiyel olarak fetusta yan etkilere yol açabilir.

D) Bağışık olan gebelere uygulanan rubella aşısı hastalığın tekrar geçirilmesine yol açabilir.

E) Rubellaya mâruz kalındıktan hemen sonra aşı yapılabilirse, fetusa virüs geçişi engellenebilir.

13.

If a pregnant woman whose immune status is unknown is exposed to rubella, an antibody test should be performed immediately. Immune women should be reassured. Susceptible pregnant women exposed to rubella should not receive vaccine because of the potential risk of transmission of vaccine virus to the foetus. Susceptible women should undergo repeat serologic testing 3-4 weeks after exposure, and, if they are still seronegative, again 6 weeks after exposure. Seroconversion on either specimen indicates infection, and the mother should be counseled about the risk of transmission to the foetus and the resulting anomalies. For the susceptible pregnant woman exposed to rubella for whom termination of pregnancy is a viable option and for whom timing permits documentation of seroconversion within the period of time when abortion is possible, immune globulin is not recommended, since it may provide an unjustified sense of security, and precludes a positive serologic diagnosis as the basis for termination of pregnancy. However, for the susceptible pregnant woman exposed to rubella for whom abortion is not an option, immunoglobulin should be administered, which reduces the attack rate but does not eliminate the risk of foetal infection. Foetal infection may occur even in the absence of clinical signs in the mother.

Parçada, rubellaya mâruz kalındığında uygulanan serolojik testlerle ilgili olarak aşağıdakilerden hangisi söylenmemiştir?

A) Kadın bağışık ise onun güvende olduğu söylenebilir.

B) İlk test negatif ise 3-4 hafta sonra test tekrarlanmalıdır.

C) Test 3.-4. haftada hâlâ negatif ise, 6. haftada bir daha tekrarlanmalıdır.

D) Testlerden herhangi biri pozitif çıkarsa fetus mutlaka etkilenecek demektir.

E) Serolojinin negatiften pozitife dönmesi enfeksiyona işaret eder.

14.

If a pregnant woman whose immune status is unknown is exposed to rubella, an antibody test should be performed immediately. Immune women should be reassured. Susceptible pregnant women exposed to rubella should not receive vaccine because of the potential risk of transmission of vaccine virus to the foetus. Susceptible women should undergo repeat serologic testing 3-4 weeks after exposure, and, if they are still seronegative, again 6 weeks after exposure. Seroconversion on either specimen indicates infection, and the mother should be counseled about the risk of transmission to the foetus and the resulting anomalies. For the susceptible pregnant woman exposed to rubella for whom termination of pregnancy is a viable option and for whom timing permits documentation of seroconversion within the period of time when abortion is possible, immune globulin is not recommended, since it may provide an unjustified sense of security, and precludes a positive serologic diagnosis as the basis for termination of pregnancy. However, for the susceptible pregnant woman exposed to rubella for whom abortion is not an option, immunoglobulin should be administered, which reduces the attack rate but does not eliminate the risk of foetal infection. Foetal infection may occur even in the absence of clinical signs in the mother.

Parçada aşağıdakilerden hangisinin gebe kadını, fetusun etkilenmeyeceği konusunda, yersiz bir güven duygusu içine sokabileceği belirtilmektedir?

A) Önceden aşılanmış olmanın

B) Önceden hastalığı geçirmiş olduğunu hatırlamanın

C) İmmün globülin uygulamasının

D) Serolojik testlerin pozitif olmasının

E) Serolojik testlerin negatif olmasının

15.

If a pregnant woman whose immune status is unknown is exposed to rubella, an antibody test should be performed immediately. Immune women should be reassured. Susceptible pregnant women exposed to rubella should not receive vaccine because of the potential risk of transmission of vaccine virus to the foetus. Susceptible women should undergo repeat serologic testing 3-4 weeks after exposure, and, if they are still seronegative, again 6 weeks after exposure. Seroconversion on either specimen indicates infection, and the mother should be counseled about the risk of transmission to the foetus and the resulting anomalies. For the susceptible pregnant woman exposed to rubella for whom termination of pregnancy is a viable option and for whom timing permits documentation of seroconversion within the period of time when abortion is possible, immune globulin is not recommended, since it may provide an unjustified sense of security, and precludes a positive serologic diagnosis as the basis for termination of pregnancy. However, for the susceptible pregnant woman exposed to rubella for whom abortion is not an option, immunoglobulin should be administered, which reduces the attack rate but does not eliminate the risk of foetal infection. Foetal infection may occur even in the absence of clinical signs in the mother.

Parçada immün globülin uygulamasıyla ilgili olarak aşağıdakilerden hangisi söylenmiştir?

A) Gebeliğin sonlandırılmasına gerek bırakmaz.

B) Gebelik sürdürülecekse gerek yoktur.

C) Annede klinik belirtileri etkili biçimde önler.

D) Fetusa karşı olası virüs saldırı oranını azaltmaz.

E) Fetal enfeksiyon riskini ortadan kaldırmaz.

16.

Vasectomy is now well-recognized worldwide as one of the safest and most effective contraceptive methods. It is estimated that more than 42 million men are currently vasectomized. Although most are concentrated in a small number of countries, the distribution of users is becoming increasingly widespread. In comparison, an estimated 150 million women have been sterilized worldwide; however, in several countries, vasectomy incidence approaches that of female sterilization. Some predicted that men would not accept the vasectomy procedure because they fear loss of masculinity or because they mistakenly equate vasectomy with castration. Men’s desire to limit family size and their concern for economic and educational advancement must outweigh their desire for more children, and their concerns about maternal morbidity and the failure of female contraceptive methods must be an overriding consideration. Most couples seeking vasectomy are dissatisfied users of other forms of contraception. To some men, condoms attenuate glans sensitivity and inhibit erection. Women using hormonal methods may have suffered from related side-effects or experienced user difficulties such as limited access to pill supplies or trained providers for implants. The risk of infection with intra-uterine devices has been a concern. Long-term complications following vasectomy, including increased risk for heart disease, testicular cancer, immune complex disorders, and erection disorders (except little evidence for a causal association between vasectomy and prostate cancer) have not been supported by long-term epidemiologic studies.

Parçada vazektomi ile ilgili olarak aşağıdakilerden hangisi söylenmemiştir?

A) Şimdilerde en güvenli ve etkili kontraseptif yöntemlerinden biridir.

B) Kullananların çoğunluğu az sayıdaki belirli ülkelerde yoğunlaşmıştır.

C) Kullananların dağılımı çoğalarak yaygınlaşmaktadır.

D) Birkaç ülkede vazektomi insidansı, kadında sterilizasyon sıklığının bile üzerine çıkmıştır.

E) Vazektomi yapılmış erkek sayısının 42 milyonun üzerinde olduğu tahmin edilmektedir.

17.

Vasectomy is now well-recognized worldwide as one of the safest and most effective contraceptive methods. It is estimated that more than 42 million men are currently vasectomized. Although most are concentrated in a small number of countries, the distribution of users is becoming increasingly widespread. In comparison, an estimated 150 million women have been sterilized worldwide; however, in several countries, vasectomy incidence approaches that of female sterilization. Some predicted that men would not accept the vasectomy procedure because they fear loss of masculinity or because they mistakenly equate vasectomy with castration. Men’s desire to limit family size and their concern for economic and educational advancement must outweigh their desire for more children, and their concerns about maternal morbidity and the failure of female contraceptive methods must be an overriding consideration. Most couples seeking vasectomy are dissatisfied users of other forms of contraception. To some men, condoms attenuate glans sensitivity and inhibit erection. Women using hormonal methods may have suffered from related side-effects or experienced user difficulties such as limited access to pill supplies or trained providers for implants. The risk of infection with intra-uterine devices has been a concern. Long-term complications following vasectomy, including increased risk for heart disease, testicular cancer, immune complex disorders, and erection disorders (except little evidence for a causal association between vasectomy and prostate cancer) have not been supported by long-term epidemiologic studies.

Parçaya göre, bazıları, erkeklerin vazektomiyi hangi nedenle kabul etmeyeceklerini öngörmüştür?

A) Erkekliklerini kaybedecekleri korkusu

B) İşlem sırasında yanlışlıkla kastre edilecekleri korkusu

C) Kadınların vazektomi ile kastrasyonun eş anlamlı olduğu yönündeki yanlış kanısı

D) Vazektomi yapılanların bazılarında erkeklik kaybının görülmesi

E) Üreme yetilerini geri dönüşsüz şekilde kaybedecekleri korkusu

18.

Vasectomy is now well-recognized worldwide as one of the safest and most effective contraceptive methods. It is estimated that more than 42 million men are currently vasectomized. Although most are concentrated in a small number of countries, the distribution of users is becoming increasingly widespread. In comparison, an estimated 150 million women have been sterilized worldwide; however, in several countries, vasectomy incidence approaches that of female sterilization. Some predicted that men would not accept the vasectomy procedure because they fear loss of masculinity or because they mistakenly equate vasectomy with castration. Men’s desire to limit family size and their concern for economic and educational advancement must outweigh their desire for more children, and their concerns about maternal morbidity and the failure of female contraceptive methods must be an overriding consideration. Most couples seeking vasectomy are dissatisfied users of other forms of contraception. To some men, condoms attenuate glans sensitivity and inhibit erection. Women using hormonal methods may have suffered from related side-effects or experienced user difficulties such as limited access to pill supplies or trained providers for implants. The risk of infection with intra-uterine devices has been a concern. Long-term complications following vasectomy, including increased risk for heart disease, testicular cancer, immune complex disorders, and erection disorders (except little evidence for a causal association between vasectomy and prostate cancer) have not been supported by long-term epidemiologic studies.

Parçada, erkeklerin vazektomi lehine karar vermeleri için baskın olması gereken etkenler arasında aşağıdakilerden hangisi sayılmamıştır?

A) Ailenin büyüklüğünün sınırlandırılması isteği

B) Ekonomik durumun ve eğitimin iyileştirilmesi kaygısı

C) Çok sayıda çocuğun, aile bütçesine katkı sağlayamayacağı gerçeği

D) Maternal morbidite kaygısı

E) Kadınların kullandıkları kontraseptif yöntemlerin başarısız olması

19.

Vasectomy is now well-recognized worldwide as one of the safest and most effective contraceptive methods. It is estimated that more than 42 million men are currently vasectomized. Although most are concentrated in a small number of countries, the distribution of users is becoming increasingly widespread. In comparison, an estimated 150 million women have been sterilized worldwide; however, in several countries, vasectomy incidence approaches that of female sterilization. Some predicted that men would not accept the vasectomy procedure because they fear loss of masculinity or because they mistakenly equate vasectomy with castration. Men’s desire to limit family size and their concern for economic and educational advancement must outweigh their desire for more children, and their concerns about maternal morbidity and the failure of female contraceptive methods must be an overriding consideration. Most couples seeking vasectomy are dissatisfied users of other forms of contraception. To some men, condoms attenuate glans sensitivity and inhibit erection. Women using hormonal methods may have suffered from related side-effects or experienced user difficulties such as limited access to pill supplies or trained providers for implants. The risk of infection with intra-uterine devices has been a concern. Long-term complications following vasectomy, including increased risk for heart disease, testicular cancer, immune complex disorders, and erection disorders (except little evidence for a causal association between vasectomy and prostate cancer) have not been supported by long-term epidemiologic studies.

Parçada, farklı kontraseptif yöntemlerin istenmeyen etkileri göz önüne alındığında, vazektominin seçilme nedenleri arasında aşağıdakilerden hangisi belirtilmemiştir?

A) Kontraseptif hapların unutulmadan kullanımındaki zorluklar

B) Hormonal yöntemlerin yan etkileri

C) Kondomun penis duyarlılığını azaltıcı etkisi

D) İmplantları yerleştirecek eğitimli uygulayıcılara ulaşılamaması

E) Rahim içi araç kullanımında enfeksiyon riski kaygısı

20.

Vasectomy is now well-recognized worldwide as one of the safest and most effective contraceptive methods. It is estimated that more than 42 million men are currently vasectomized. Although most are concentrated in a small number of countries, the distribution of users is becoming increasingly widespread. In comparison, an estimated 150 million women have been sterilized worldwide; however, in several countries, vasectomy incidence approaches that of female sterilization. Some predicted that men would not accept the vasectomy procedure because they fear loss of masculinity or because they mistakenly equate vasectomy with castration. Men’s desire to limit family size and their concern for economic and educational advancement must outweigh their desire for more children, and their concerns about maternal morbidity and the failure of female contraceptive methods must be an overriding consideration. Most couples seeking vasectomy are dissatisfied users of other forms of contraception. To some men, condoms attenuate glans sensitivity and inhibit erection. Women using hormonal methods may have suffered from related side-effects or experienced user difficulties such as limited access to pill supplies or trained providers for implants. The risk of infection with intra-uterine devices has been a concern. Long-term complications following vasectomy, including increased risk for heart disease, testicular cancer, immune complex disorders, and erection disorders (except little evidence for a causal association between vasectomy and prostate cancer) have not been supported by long-term epidemiologic studies.

Parçaya göre, epidemiyolojik çalışmalar, vazektomi ile aşağıdakilerden hangisi arasında zayıf da olsa bir ilişkiyi desteklemektedir?

A) Kalp hastalığı

B) Prostat kanseri

C) Testis kanseri

D) İmmün kompleks bozuklukları

E) Sertleşme sorunları

21.

Several interventions are of proven effectiveness in decreasing the frequency of infection after major pelvic surgery. Patients who have preexisting medical illnesses should be stabilized before surgery. Prolonged preoperative hospitalization should be avoided, so that the patient’s risk of being colonized with hospital-acquired bacteria is reduced. Compared with the patient’s endogenous bacterial flora, such organisms are more likely to be resistant to commonly used antibiotics. The physician should pay strict attention to those surgical techniques that clearly have been proven to reduce the rate of postoperative infection. Finally, patients undergoing most major pelvic surgery procedures should receive prophylactic antibiotics. Prophylactic antibiotics have three major mechanisms of action. They decrease the size of the bacterial inoculum at the surgical site. They alter the environment at the operative site to make it less hospitable to the growth of bacteria. Finally, by concentrating in white blood cells, the antibiotics also enhance the phagocytosis of pathogenic bacteria. Selected antibiotic should not be a drug used as the primary treatment for an established infection. For most patients, a single dose of antibiotics is sufficient to attain the desired therapeutic effect. In indigent patient populations with a high baseline rate of wound infection, the frequency of wound infection also is reduced. Prophylaxis usually does not influence the frequency of urinary tract infection.

Parçada, majör pelvik cerrahi sonrası enfeksiyon sıklığını azaltan girişimler sayılırken aşağıdakilerden hangisi söylenmemektedir?

A) Mevcut tıbbî hastalıklar cerrahi öncesi dönemde kontrol altına alınmalıdır.

B) Cerrahi öncesi hastanede kalış süresinin uzamasından kaçınılmalıdır.

C) Cerrahi sonrası enfeksiyon hızını düşürdüğü kanıtlanmış cerrahi tekniklere bağlı kalınmalıdır.

D) Koruyucu amaçlı antibiyotik verilmelidir.

E) Seçilen antibiyotiğin geniş spektrumlu olmasına dikkat edilmelidir.

22.

Several interventions are of proven effectiveness in decreasing the frequency of infection after major pelvic surgery. Patients who have preexisting medical illnesses should be stabilized before surgery. Prolonged preoperative hospitalization should be avoided, so that the patient’s risk of being colonized with hospital-acquired bacteria is reduced. Compared with the patient’s endogenous bacterial flora, such organisms are more likely to be resistant to commonly used antibiotics. The physician should pay strict attention to those surgical techniques that clearly have been proven to reduce the rate of postoperative infection. Finally, patients undergoing most major pelvic surgery procedures should receive prophylactic antibiotics. Prophylactic antibiotics have three major mechanisms of action. They decrease the size of the bacterial inoculum at the surgical site. They alter the environment at the operative site to make it less hospitable to the growth of bacteria. Finally, by concentrating in white blood cells, the antibiotics also enhance the phagocytosis of pathogenic bacteria. Selected antibiotic should not be a drug used as the primary treatment for an established infection. For most patients, a single dose of antibiotics is sufficient to attain the desired therapeutic effect. In indigent patient populations with a high baseline rate of wound infection, the frequency of wound infection also is reduced. Prophylaxis usually does not influence the frequency of urinary tract infection.

Parçada koruyucu antibiyotiklerle ilgili olarak aşağıdakilerden hangisi söylenmemiştir?

A) Cerrahi bölgesinde yerleşmiş bakteri sayısını azaltır.

B) Cerrahi bölge ortamını bakteri gelişmesine uygun olmayacak şekilde değiştirir.

C) Beyaz kürelerde yoğunlaşarak bakteri fagositozunu hızlandırır.

D) Tek doz kullanımı hastaların sadece bir kısmında arzu edilen etkiyi sağlar.

E) Mevcut enfeksiyonun primer tedavisinde verilen antibiyotikler, profilaktik olarak kullanılmamalıdır.

23.

Several interventions are of proven effectiveness in decreasing the frequency of infection after major pelvic surgery. Patients who have preexisting medical illnesses should be stabilized before surgery. Prolonged preoperative hospitalization should be avoided, so that the patient’s risk of being colonized with hospital-acquired bacteria is reduced. Compared with the patient’s endogenous bacterial flora, such organisms are more likely to be resistant to commonly used antibiotics. The physician should pay strict attention to those surgical techniques that clearly have been proven to reduce the rate of postoperative infection. Finally, patients undergoing most major pelvic surgery procedures should receive prophylactic antibiotics. Prophylactic antibiotics have three major mechanisms of action. They decrease the size of the bacterial inoculum at the surgical site. They alter the environment at the operative site to make it less hospitable to the growth of bacteria. Finally, by concentrating in white blood cells, the antibiotics also enhance the phagocytosis of pathogenic bacteria. Selected antibiotic should not be a drug used as the primary treatment for an established infection. For most patients, a single dose of antibiotics is sufficient to attain the desired therapeutic effect. In indigent patient populations with a high baseline rate of wound infection, the frequency of wound infection also is reduced. Prophylaxis usually does not influence the frequency of urinary tract infection.

Parçada, hangi özellikteki hasta gruplarında koruyucu antibiyotiklerin yüksek yara enfeksiyon oranlarını da azalttığı söylenmektedir?

A) Yoksul

B) Yaşlı

C) Bağışıklık sistemleri baskılanmış

D) Şişman

E) Boşaltım sistemi cerrahisi geçiren

24.

Several interventions are of proven effectiveness in decreasing the frequency of infection after major pelvic surgery. Patients who have preexisting medical illnesses should be stabilized before surgery. Prolonged preoperative hospitalization should be avoided, so that the patient’s risk of being colonized with hospital-acquired bacteria is reduced. Compared with the patient’s endogenous bacterial flora, such organisms are more likely to be resistant to commonly used antibiotics. The physician should pay strict attention to those surgical techniques that clearly have been proven to reduce the rate of postoperative infection. Finally, patients undergoing most major pelvic surgery procedures should receive prophylactic antibiotics. Prophylactic antibiotics have three major mechanisms of action. They decrease the size of the bacterial inoculum at the surgical site. They alter the environment at the operative site to make it less hospitable to the growth of bacteria. Finally, by concentrating in white blood cells, the antibiotics also enhance the phagocytosis of pathogenic bacteria. Selected antibiotic should not be a drug used as the primary treatment for an established infection. For most patients, a single dose of antibiotics is sufficient to attain the desired therapeutic effect. In indigent patient populations with a high baseline rate of wound infection, the frequency of wound infection also is reduced. Prophylaxis usually does not influence the frequency of urinary tract infection.

Parçaya göre, profilaksi genellikle aşağıdakilerden hangisinin enfeksiyonlarının önlenmesinde etkisizdir?

A) Alt solunum yolu

B) Barsaklar

C) İdrar yolları

D) Perihepatik

E) Vasküler sistem

25.

Several interventions are of proven effectiveness in decreasing the frequency of infection after major pelvic surgery. Patients who have preexisting medical illnesses should be stabilized before surgery. Prolonged preoperative hospitalization should be avoided, so that the patient’s risk of being colonized with hospital-acquired bacteria is reduced. Compared with the patient’s endogenous bacterial flora, such organisms are more likely to be resistant to commonly used antibiotics. The physician should pay strict attention to those surgical techniques that clearly have been proven to reduce the rate of postoperative infection. Finally, patients undergoing most major pelvic surgery procedures should receive prophylactic antibiotics. Prophylactic antibiotics have three major mechanisms of action. They decrease the size of the bacterial inoculum at the surgical site. They alter the environment at the operative site to make it less hospitable to the growth of bacteria. Finally, by concentrating in white blood cells, the antibiotics also enhance the phagocytosis of pathogenic bacteria. Selected antibiotic should not be a drug used as the primary treatment for an established infection. For most patients, a single dose of antibiotics is sufficient to attain the desired therapeutic effect. In indigent patient populations with a high baseline rate of wound infection, the frequency of wound infection also is reduced. Prophylaxis usually does not influence the frequency of urinary tract infection.

Parçanın dördüncü cümlesinde geçen "such organisms" ifadesi aşağıdakilerden hangisine işaret etmektedir?

A) Sıklıkla kullanılan antibiyotiklere dirençli bakteriler

B) Hastanın endojen bakteriyel florası

C) Kesi yerinde yerleşmiş mikroorganizmalar

D) Hastanede kazanılmış bakteriler

E) Patojenik bakteriler

26.

Polypharmacy is an iatrogenic problem that affects many of the elderly. Adverse drug reactions are responsible for many of this group’s hospital admissions, and the more medications the patient is taking, the more likely is an adverse reaction. The annual check-up can be an opportunity to review continuing need for all prescription drugs, and also to ask about over-the-counter and herbal remedies that the patient may ignore mentioning. Typical problem medications are psychotropics, antihypertensives, digoxin, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs and steroid preparations. The elderly woman’s diet can significantly affect her health. Nutritional status can be affected by slowing metabolic rate, loss of dentition, loss of smell and taste receptors, and the effects of poverty, isolation, and depression. The practitioner should encourage physical activity tailored to the patient’s medical problems and level of fitness. Exercise has been shown to improve cardiopulmonary and muscular fitness in the elderly and preserve functional capacity.

Parçada polifarmasi ile ilgili olarak aşağıdakilerden hangisi söylenmemiştir?

A) Çoğu hastanın hastaneye başvuru nedeni ilaç yan etkileridir.

B) Hekimlerin sebep olduğu problemlerdir.

C) Yaşlıların çoğunu etkiler.

D) Ne kadar çok ilaç alınırsa, yan etki olasılığı o kadar yüksektir.

E) Temel sorun yaşlıların hastaneye sık başvurmasıdır.

27.

Polypharmacy is an iatrogenic problem that affects many of the elderly. Adverse drug reactions are responsible for many of this group’s hospital admissions, and the more medications the patient is taking, the more likely is an adverse reaction. The annual check-up can be an opportunity to review continuing need for all prescription drugs, and also to ask about over-the-counter and herbal remedies that the patient may ignore mentioning. Typical problem medications are psychotropics, antihypertensives, digoxin, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs and steroid preparations. The elderly woman’s diet can significantly affect her health. Nutritional status can be affected by slowing metabolic rate, loss of dentition, loss of smell and taste receptors, and the effects of poverty, isolation, and depression. The practitioner should encourage physical activity tailored to the patient’s medical problems and level of fitness. Exercise has been shown to improve cardiopulmonary and muscular fitness in the elderly and preserve functional capacity.

Parçaya göre, hastanın yıllık tıbbî muayenelerde bahsetmeyi ihmal etmiş olabileceği konu aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Kullandığı bitkisel deva yöntemleri

B) Kullandığı reçeteli ilaçlar

C) Kullandığı ilaçların yan etkileri

D) Eczaneden almayı unuttuğu reçeteli ilaçlar

E) Önceki muayeneden bu yana yeni ortaya çıkan şikayetleri

28.

Polypharmacy is an iatrogenic problem that affects many of the elderly. Adverse drug reactions are responsible for many of this group’s hospital admissions, and the more medications the patient is taking, the more likely is an adverse reaction. The annual check-up can be an opportunity to review continuing need for all prescription drugs, and also to ask about over-the-counter and herbal remedies that the patient may ignore mentioning. Typical problem medications are psychotropics, antihypertensives, digoxin, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs and steroid preparations. The elderly woman’s diet can significantly affect her health. Nutritional status can be affected by slowing metabolic rate, loss of dentition, loss of smell and taste receptors, and the effects of poverty, isolation, and depression. The practitioner should encourage physical activity tailored to the patient’s medical problems and level of fitness. Exercise has been shown to improve cardiopulmonary and muscular fitness in the elderly and preserve functional capacity.

Parçada, sorun çıkaran tipik ilaçlar arasında aşağıdakilerden hangisi sayılmamıştır?

A) Antihipertansifler

B) Antiinflamatuvarlar

C) Psikotroplar

D) Steroidler

E) Antibiyotikler

29.

Polypharmacy is an iatrogenic problem that affects many of the elderly. Adverse drug reactions are responsible for many of this group’s hospital admissions, and the more medications the patient is taking, the more likely is an adverse reaction. The annual check-up can be an opportunity to review continuing need for all prescription drugs, and also to ask about over-the-counter and herbal remedies that the patient may ignore mentioning. Typical problem medications are psychotropics, antihypertensives, digoxin, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs and steroid preparations. The elderly woman’s diet can significantly affect her health. Nutritional status can be affected by slowing metabolic rate, loss of dentition, loss of smell and taste receptors, and the effects of poverty, isolation, and depression. The practitioner should encourage physical activity tailored to the patient’s medical problems and level of fitness. Exercise has been shown to improve cardiopulmonary and muscular fitness in the elderly and preserve functional capacity.

Parçada, aşağıdakilerden hangisi yaşlı kadınların beslenme durumlarını etkileyen faktörler arasında sayılmamıştır?

A) Diş kayıpları

B) Koku duyusu kaybı

C) Yoksulluk

D) Aşağılanma duygusu

E) Depresyon

30.

Polypharmacy is an iatrogenic problem that affects many of the elderly. Adverse drug reactions are responsible for many of this group’s hospital admissions, and the more medications the patient is taking, the more likely is an adverse reaction. The annual check-up can be an opportunity to review continuing need for all prescription drugs, and also to ask about over-the-counter and herbal remedies that the patient may ignore mentioning. Typical problem medications are psychotropics, antihypertensives, digoxin, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs and steroid preparations. The elderly woman’s diet can significantly affect her health. Nutritional status can be affected by slowing metabolic rate, loss of dentition, loss of smell and taste receptors, and the effects of poverty, isolation, and depression. The practitioner should encourage physical activity tailored to the patient’s medical problems and level of fitness. Exercise has been shown to improve cardiopulmonary and muscular fitness in the elderly and preserve functional capacity.

Parçada, hekimlere teşvik etmeleri önerilen fiziksel aktiviteler konusunda aşağıdakilerden hangisi söylenmemiştir?

A) Tıbbî durumlarına uygun şekilde planlanmalıdır.

B) Kalp ve akciğer işlevlerini iyileştirir.

C) İşlevsel kapasiteyi korur.

D) Kasların formda kalmasını sağlar.

E) Aşırı yapıldığında yorgunluğa yol açar.

31.

Mumps is an acute systemic viral infection that is usually self-limited, occurs most commonly in schoolaged children, and is clinically characterized by nonsuppurative parotitis. Mumps virus is classified as a member of the Paramyxovirus family. Mumps virions are pleomorphic, roughly spherical, enveloped particles with an average diametre of 200 nm. Glycoprotein spikes project from the surface of the envelope, which encloses a helical nucleocapsid composed of nucleoproteins and linear, nonsegmented, single-stranded, negative-sense RNA. Humans are the only natural hosts for mumps virus, although infection can be induced experimentally in a variety of mammalian species. In vitro, mumps virus can be cultured in many mammalian cell lines and in embryonated hens’ eggs. In unvaccinated urban populations, mumps is a disease of school-aged children, and >90% will have mumps antibodies by age 15.

Parçada kabakulak hastalığının özellikleri arasında aşağıdakilerden hangisi sayılmamıştır?

A) Akut

B) Bebeklerde görülen

C) Viral

D) Sistemik

E) Genellikle kendi kendini sınırlayan

32.

Mumps is an acute systemic viral infection that is usually self-limited, occurs most commonly in schoolaged children, and is clinically characterized by nonsuppurative parotitis. Mumps virus is classified as a member of the Paramyxovirus family. Mumps virions are pleomorphic, roughly spherical, enveloped particles with an average diametre of 200 nm. Glycoprotein spikes project from the surface of the envelope, which encloses a helical nucleocapsid composed of nucleoproteins and linear, nonsegmented, single-stranded, negative-sense RNA. Humans are the only natural hosts for mumps virus, although infection can be induced experimentally in a variety of mammalian species. In vitro, mumps virus can be cultured in many mammalian cell lines and in embryonated hens’ eggs. In unvaccinated urban populations, mumps is a disease of school-aged children, and >90% will have mumps antibodies by age 15.

Parçaya göre, aşağıdakilerden hangisi kabakulak virüsünün bir özelliğidir?

A) Kapsülsüz

B) Çubuksu

C) Değişik şekillerde görünen

D) Kıvrımsız

E) Hızla çoğalan

33.

Mumps is an acute systemic viral infection that is usually self-limited, occurs most commonly in schoolaged children, and is clinically characterized by nonsuppurative parotitis. Mumps virus is classified as a member of the Paramyxovirus family. Mumps virions are pleomorphic, roughly spherical, enveloped particles with an average diametre of 200 nm. Glycoprotein spikes project from the surface of the envelope, which encloses a helical nucleocapsid composed of nucleoproteins and linear, nonsegmented, single-stranded, negative-sense RNA. Humans are the only natural hosts for mumps virus, although infection can be induced experimentally in a variety of mammalian species. In vitro, mumps virus can be cultured in many mammalian cell lines and in embryonated hens’ eggs. In unvaccinated urban populations, mumps is a disease of school-aged children, and >90% will have mumps antibodies by age 15.

Parçaya göre, glikoprotein uzantılar aşağıdakilerin hangisinden çıkmaktadır?

A) Zarfsız bölgeler

B) Nukleusun yüzeyi

C) Nukleusun içi

D) Zarfın yüzeyi

E) RNA

34.

Mumps is an acute systemic viral infection that is usually self-limited, occurs most commonly in schoolaged children, and is clinically characterized by nonsuppurative parotitis. Mumps virus is classified as a member of the Paramyxovirus family. Mumps virions are pleomorphic, roughly spherical, enveloped particles with an average diametre of 200 nm. Glycoprotein spikes project from the surface of the envelope, which encloses a helical nucleocapsid composed of nucleoproteins and linear, nonsegmented, single-stranded, negative-sense RNA. Humans are the only natural hosts for mumps virus, although infection can be induced experimentally in a variety of mammalian species. In vitro, mumps virus can be cultured in many mammalian cell lines and in embryonated hens’ eggs. In unvaccinated urban populations, mumps is a disease of school-aged children, and >90% will have mumps antibodies by age 15.

Parçaya göre, kabakulak virüsünün doğal konağı aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Memeli hayvanlar

B) İnsanlar

C) Otobur hayvanlar

D) Etobur hayvanlar

E) Yumurta ile üreyen hayvanlar

35.

Mumps is an acute systemic viral infection that is usually self-limited, occurs most commonly in schoolaged children, and is clinically characterized by nonsuppurative parotitis. Mumps virus is classified as a member of the Paramyxovirus family. Mumps virions are pleomorphic, roughly spherical, enveloped particles with an average diametre of 200 nm. Glycoprotein spikes project from the surface of the envelope, which encloses a helical nucleocapsid composed of nucleoproteins and linear, nonsegmented, single-stranded, negative-sense RNA. Humans are the only natural hosts for mumps virus, although infection can be induced experimentally in a variety of mammalian species. In vitro, mumps virus can be cultured in many mammalian cell lines and in embryonated hens’ eggs. In unvaccinated urban populations, mumps is a disease of school-aged children, and >90% will have mumps antibodies by age 15.

Parçaya göre, % 90’ından fazlasında antikor bulunan grup aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Evde büyümüş olan ilkokul çocukları

B) Aşılanmamış erişkinler

C) 15 yaşa kadar olan aşılanmamış kişiler

D) Hastalık geçirmiş erişkinler

E) Hastalık geçirmemiş toplumun tümü

36.

The subcutaneous tissue is a fibrofatty layer spread between skin and muscles. It functions not only as a thermal and mechanical insulator but also as an active metabolic organ. The characteristic “signet ring” lipocytes are organized into lobules by fibrous septa, which are continuous with the dermis and contain the blood and lymph vessels and reticuloendothelial cells. The diagnosis of panniculitis frequently requires deep skin biopsy. The most important histologic characteristic is the location of the inflammatory process. Inflammation primarily in the septa is designated septal panniculitis, whereas inflammation primarily of the fat lobules is called lobular panniculitis. The presence or absence of vasculitis further differentiates panniculitis into four major groups.

Parçada "fibröz yağlı tabaka" olarak nitelenen aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Yağ hücreleri

B) Deri

C) Kas

D) Damar duvarı

E) Cilt altı dokusu

37.

The subcutaneous tissue is a fibrofatty layer spread between skin and muscles. It functions not only as a thermal and mechanical insulator but also as an active metabolic organ. The characteristic “signet ring” lipocytes are organized into lobules by fibrous septa, which are continuous with the dermis and contain the blood and lymph vessels and reticuloendothelial cells. The diagnosis of panniculitis frequently requires deep skin biopsy. The most important histologic characteristic is the location of the inflammatory process. Inflammation primarily in the septa is designated septal panniculitis, whereas inflammation primarily of the fat lobules is called lobular panniculitis. The presence or absence of vasculitis further differentiates panniculitis into four major groups.

Parçaya göre, aşağıdakilerden hangisi cilt altı yağ dokusunun görevlerinden biridir?

A) Rahat hareket etmeyi sağlaması

B) Terlemeyi önlemesi

C) Çarpmalara karşı koruması

D) Kan dolaşımını sağlaması

E) Hastalıklara karşı koruması

38.

The subcutaneous tissue is a fibrofatty layer spread between skin and muscles. It functions not only as a thermal and mechanical insulator but also as an active metabolic organ. The characteristic “signet ring” lipocytes are organized into lobules by fibrous septa, which are continuous with the dermis and contain the blood and lymph vessels and reticuloendothelial cells. The diagnosis of panniculitis frequently requires deep skin biopsy. The most important histologic characteristic is the location of the inflammatory process. Inflammation primarily in the septa is designated septal panniculitis, whereas inflammation primarily of the fat lobules is called lobular panniculitis. The presence or absence of vasculitis further differentiates panniculitis into four major groups.

Parçada, aşağıdakilerden hangisinin kan damarı içerdiği belirtilmektedir?

A) Derinin

B) Lenfatik sistemin

C) Retiküloendotelyal hücrelerin

D) Fibröz septaların

E) Kasların

39.

The subcutaneous tissue is a fibrofatty layer spread between skin and muscles. It functions not only as a thermal and mechanical insulator but also as an active metabolic organ. The characteristic “signet ring” lipocytes are organized into lobules by fibrous septa, which are continuous with the dermis and contain the blood and lymph vessels and reticuloendothelial cells. The diagnosis of panniculitis frequently requires deep skin biopsy. The most important histologic characteristic is the location of the inflammatory process. Inflammation primarily in the septa is designated septal panniculitis, whereas inflammation primarily of the fat lobules is called lobular panniculitis. The presence or absence of vasculitis further differentiates panniculitis into four major groups.

Parçaya göre, panikülit tanısı genellikle aşağıdakilerden hangisiyle konur?

A) Ciltten sürüntü alınmasıyla

B) Ciltten parça alınmasıyla

C) Cilt kültürüyle

D) Palpasyonla

E) Aspirasyonla

40.

The subcutaneous tissue is a fibrofatty layer spread between skin and muscles. It functions not only as a thermal and mechanical insulator but also as an active metabolic organ. The characteristic “signet ring” lipocytes are organized into lobules by fibrous septa, which are continuous with the dermis and contain the blood and lymph vessels and reticuloendothelial cells. The diagnosis of panniculitis frequently requires deep skin biopsy. The most important histologic characteristic is the location of the inflammatory process. Inflammation primarily in the septa is designated septal panniculitis, whereas inflammation primarily of the fat lobules is called lobular panniculitis. The presence or absence of vasculitis further differentiates panniculitis into four major groups.

Parçaya göre, panikülit tiplerinin ayrımını sağlayan bulgu aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Yağ dokusunda artış

B) Septal tutulum

C) Lobüler tutulum

D) Damar iltihabı

E) Yağ dokusunda sertleşme

41.

Essential tremor is the most common type of tremor encountered in developed countries. The tremor is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with high penetrance. Affected patients lack the hypokinetic features and rigidity of Parkinson’s disease (PD). Essential tremor typically produces flexion-extension oscillation of the hands at the wrists or adductionabduction movements of the fingers when arms are outstretched in front of the body. Although frequently referred to as “benign essential tremor”, it may be partially disabling, often causing spilling of liquids and interfering with handwriting. Essential tremor also frequently involves the head and voice, which helps to differentiate it from parkinsonian tremor. Another useful distinguishing feature is the occurrence of essential tremor during maintenance of posture; parkinsonian tremor is usually present when the affected body part is at relative rest. Parkinsonian patients, however, often exhibit postural tremor, and patients with essential tremor may have tremor at rest, suggesting an overlap between PD and essential tremor. Nearly half of all patients with essential tremor show evidence of an associated dystonia.

Parçaya göre, tremor hangi tip kalıtım gösterir?

A) Otozomal resesif

B) Otozomal dominant

C) X’e bağlı resesif

D) X’e bağlı dominant

E) Mendelyan

42.

Essential tremor is the most common type of tremor encountered in developed countries. The tremor is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with high penetrance. Affected patients lack the hypokinetic features and rigidity of Parkinson’s disease (PD). Essential tremor typically produces flexion-extension oscillation of the hands at the wrists or adductionabduction movements of the fingers when arms are outstretched in front of the body. Although frequently referred to as “benign essential tremor”, it may be partially disabling, often causing spilling of liquids and interfering with handwriting. Essential tremor also frequently involves the head and voice, which helps to differentiate it from parkinsonian tremor. Another useful distinguishing feature is the occurrence of essential tremor during maintenance of posture; parkinsonian tremor is usually present when the affected body part is at relative rest. Parkinsonian patients, however, often exhibit postural tremor, and patients with essential tremor may have tremor at rest, suggesting an overlap between PD and essential tremor. Nearly half of all patients with essential tremor show evidence of an associated dystonia.

Parçada esansiyel tremorun özellikleri arasında aşağıdakilerden hangisi sayılmamıştır?

A) Fleksiyon-ekstansiyon osilasyonun olması

B) Hipokinetik becerilerin olmaması

C) Kolların öne uzatılamaması

D) Addüksiyon-abdüksiyon hareketlerin olması

E) Parkinson tipi rijiditenin olmaması

43.

Essential tremor is the most common type of tremor encountered in developed countries. The tremor is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with high penetrance. Affected patients lack the hypokinetic features and rigidity of Parkinson’s disease (PD). Essential tremor typically produces flexion-extension oscillation of the hands at the wrists or adductionabduction movements of the fingers when arms are outstretched in front of the body. Although frequently referred to as “benign essential tremor”, it may be partially disabling, often causing spilling of liquids and interfering with handwriting. Essential tremor also frequently involves the head and voice, which helps to differentiate it from parkinsonian tremor. Another useful distinguishing feature is the occurrence of essential tremor during maintenance of posture; parkinsonian tremor is usually present when the affected body part is at relative rest. Parkinsonian patients, however, often exhibit postural tremor, and patients with essential tremor may have tremor at rest, suggesting an overlap between PD and essential tremor. Nearly half of all patients with essential tremor show evidence of an associated dystonia.

Parçaya göre, aşağıdakilerden hangisi sözü edilen hastalığa "iyi huylu" denmesiyle çelişen durumlardan biridir?

A) Hastaların yazı yazmalarına engel olması

B) Hastaların uzun süre ayakta kalmalarına engel olması

C) Baş hareketlerini de etkilemesi

D) Konuşmayı etkilemesi

E) Parkinsona dönüşmesi

44.

Essential tremor is the most common type of tremor encountered in developed countries. The tremor is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with high penetrance. Affected patients lack the hypokinetic features and rigidity of Parkinson’s disease (PD). Essential tremor typically produces flexion-extension oscillation of the hands at the wrists or adductionabduction movements of the fingers when arms are outstretched in front of the body. Although frequently referred to as “benign essential tremor”, it may be partially disabling, often causing spilling of liquids and interfering with handwriting. Essential tremor also frequently involves the head and voice, which helps to differentiate it from parkinsonian tremor. Another useful distinguishing feature is the occurrence of essential tremor during maintenance of posture; parkinsonian tremor is usually present when the affected body part is at relative rest. Parkinsonian patients, however, often exhibit postural tremor, and patients with essential tremor may have tremor at rest, suggesting an overlap between PD and essential tremor. Nearly half of all patients with essential tremor show evidence of an associated dystonia.

Parçaya göre, esansiyel tremorun parkinsondan ayırt edici özelliği aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Postürün sabit tutulması hâlinde tremorun durması

B) Sıklıkla başı ve sesi etkilemesi

C) Tremorun heyecanla artması

D) Dikkat edilirse tremorun azalması

E) Yorgunlukla tremorun artması

45.

Essential tremor is the most common type of tremor encountered in developed countries. The tremor is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with high penetrance. Affected patients lack the hypokinetic features and rigidity of Parkinson’s disease (PD). Essential tremor typically produces flexion-extension oscillation of the hands at the wrists or adductionabduction movements of the fingers when arms are outstretched in front of the body. Although frequently referred to as “benign essential tremor”, it may be partially disabling, often causing spilling of liquids and interfering with handwriting. Essential tremor also frequently involves the head and voice, which helps to differentiate it from parkinsonian tremor. Another useful distinguishing feature is the occurrence of essential tremor during maintenance of posture; parkinsonian tremor is usually present when the affected body part is at relative rest. Parkinsonian patients, however, often exhibit postural tremor, and patients with essential tremor may have tremor at rest, suggesting an overlap between PD and essential tremor. Nearly half of all patients with essential tremor show evidence of an associated dystonia.

Parçaya göre, hastaların yaklaşık yarısında olan ek durum aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Duruş bozukluğu

B) Ses kısıklığı

C) Tonus bozukluğu

D) Parkinson hastalığı

E) Titreme

46.

Neuroendocrine tumours of the thymus are rare, histologically diverse neoplasms with an unpredictable clinical behaviour. Ten neuroendocrine tumours of the thymus were analyzed in a study for specific clinical and pathological features. Prognostic factors of these cases and 71 previously published cases were evaluated by Kaplan-Meier survival curves and Cox multivariate hazard model. There were 7 males and 3 females, with ages ranging from 26 to 77 years. Cases were classified as carcinoid tumour (2), atypical carcinoid tumour (6), and small cell carcinoma (2). An advanced clinical stage was evident in all instances with frequent recurrence (4) and metastases (8), and a short disease-free survival. Overall mortality was 60%. Statistical analysis of current and previously published cases revealed that unresectability, extent of surgical resection, and advanced clinical stage at presentation were associated with higher mortality. By multivariate Cox regression analysis, advanced clinical stage was associated with decreased survival.

Parçaya göre, aşağıdakilerden hangisi timusun nöro-endokrin tümörlerinin özelliklerinden biridir?

A) Genellikle iyi huylu olması

B) Histolojik yapılarının iyi bilinmemesi

C) Giderek daha sık görülmesi

D) Her zaman kötü huylu olması

E) Klinik davranışının öngörülememesi

47.

Neuroendocrine tumours of the thymus are rare, histologically diverse neoplasms with an unpredictable clinical behaviour. Ten neuroendocrine tumours of the thymus were analyzed in a study for specific clinical and pathological features. Prognostic factors of these cases and 71 previously published cases were evaluated by Kaplan-Meier survival curves and Cox multivariate hazard model. There were 7 males and 3 females, with ages ranging from 26 to 77 years. Cases were classified as carcinoid tumour (2), atypical carcinoid tumour (6), and small cell carcinoma (2). An advanced clinical stage was evident in all instances with frequent recurrence (4) and metastases (8), and a short disease-free survival. Overall mortality was 60%. Statistical analysis of current and previously published cases revealed that unresectability, extent of surgical resection, and advanced clinical stage at presentation were associated with higher mortality. By multivariate Cox regression analysis, advanced clinical stage was associated with decreased survival.

Parçada sözü edilen çalışmada önceden yayımlanmış olanlar dahil toplam kaç olgu prognoz açısından değerlendirilmiştir?

A) 81

B) 77

C) 71

D) 61

E) 10

48.

Neuroendocrine tumours of the thymus are rare, histologically diverse neoplasms with an unpredictable clinical behaviour. Ten neuroendocrine tumours of the thymus were analyzed in a study for specific clinical and pathological features. Prognostic factors of these cases and 71 previously published cases were evaluated by Kaplan-Meier survival curves and Cox multivariate hazard model. There were 7 males and 3 females, with ages ranging from 26 to 77 years. Cases were classified as carcinoid tumour (2), atypical carcinoid tumour (6), and small cell carcinoma (2). An advanced clinical stage was evident in all instances with frequent recurrence (4) and metastases (8), and a short disease-free survival. Overall mortality was 60%. Statistical analysis of current and previously published cases revealed that unresectability, extent of surgical resection, and advanced clinical stage at presentation were associated with higher mortality. By multivariate Cox regression analysis, advanced clinical stage was associated with decreased survival.

Parçada sözü edilen on olgunun incelendiği çalışmada en fazla görülen tümör tipi aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Hodgkin

B) Sarkoma

C) Lenfoma

D) Atipik karsinoid tümör

E) Miyelom

49.

Neuroendocrine tumours of the thymus are rare, histologically diverse neoplasms with an unpredictable clinical behaviour. Ten neuroendocrine tumours of the thymus were analyzed in a study for specific clinical and pathological features. Prognostic factors of these cases and 71 previously published cases were evaluated by Kaplan-Meier survival curves and Cox multivariate hazard model. There were 7 males and 3 females, with ages ranging from 26 to 77 years. Cases were classified as carcinoid tumour (2), atypical carcinoid tumour (6), and small cell carcinoma (2). An advanced clinical stage was evident in all instances with frequent recurrence (4) and metastases (8), and a short disease-free survival. Overall mortality was 60%. Statistical analysis of current and previously published cases revealed that unresectability, extent of surgical resection, and advanced clinical stage at presentation were associated with higher mortality. By multivariate Cox regression analysis, advanced clinical stage was associated with decreased survival.

Parçaya göre, aşağıdakilerden hangisi timusun nöro-endokrin tümörlerinin mortalitesinin yüksek olmasıyla ilişkilidir?

A) Damarlı olması

B) Çevreye yapışık olması

C) Geniş rezeksiyon gerektirmesi

D) Metastatik olması

E) Hızlı ilerlemesi

50.

Neuroendocrine tumours of the thymus are rare, histologically diverse neoplasms with an unpredictable clinical behaviour. Ten neuroendocrine tumours of the thymus were analyzed in a study for specific clinical and pathological features. Prognostic factors of these cases and 71 previously published cases were evaluated by Kaplan-Meier survival curves and Cox multivariate hazard model. There were 7 males and 3 females, with ages ranging from 26 to 77 years. Cases were classified as carcinoid tumour (2), atypical carcinoid tumour (6), and small cell carcinoma (2). An advanced clinical stage was evident in all instances with frequent recurrence (4) and metastases (8), and a short disease-free survival. Overall mortality was 60%. Statistical analysis of current and previously published cases revealed that unresectability, extent of surgical resection, and advanced clinical stage at presentation were associated with higher mortality. By multivariate Cox regression analysis, advanced clinical stage was associated with decreased survival.

Parçaya göre, timusun nöro-endokrin tümörlerinde, hayatta kalmadaki azalma aşağıdakilerden hangisiyle ilişkili bulunmuştur?

A) Hızlı metastaz yapmış olması

B) İlerlemiş klinik evrede olması

C) Uzak metastaz yapmış olması

D) Tekrarlama riskinin yüksekliği

E) Kötü huylu olması

51.

Ischemia-reperfusion injury of the lung frequently occurs after cardiopulmonary bypass, after pulmonary thromboendarterectomy, and especially after lung transplantation. Heparin is known to be protective in ischemia-reperfusion injury, but the risk for bleeding disorders may restrict its use in a variety of diseased conditions. Therefore, researchers tested the efficiency of nonanticoagulant N-acetyl heparin to protect from post-ischemic reperfusion injury of the lung. Pentobarbital-aneshetized, mechanically ventilated Lewis rats were heparinized (100IU/kg) before insertion of catheters. Additionally, animals received either heparin, NA heparin; or saline (control) before ischemia.

Parçaya göre, akciğerin iskemi-reperfüzyon hasarı özellikle aşağıdakilerden hangisini takiben olmaktadır?

A) Karotis endarterektomi

B) Kardiopulmoner bypass

C) Pulmoner trombo endarterektomi

D) Ventriküler bypass

E) Akciğer nakli

52.

Ischemia-reperfusion injury of the lung frequently occurs after cardiopulmonary bypass, after pulmonary thromboendarterectomy, and especially after lung transplantation. Heparin is known to be protective in ischemia-reperfusion injury, but the risk for bleeding disorders may restrict its use in a variety of diseased conditions. Therefore, researchers tested the efficiency of nonanticoagulant N-acetyl heparin to protect from post-ischemic reperfusion injury of the lung. Pentobarbital-aneshetized, mechanically ventilated Lewis rats were heparinized (100IU/kg) before insertion of catheters. Additionally, animals received either heparin, NA heparin; or saline (control) before ischemia.

Parçaya göre, heparinin özelliklerinden biri aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Kanama bozukluğuna yol açabilmesi

B) Kasa verilebilmesi

C) Ağızdan kullanılması

D) Vücut dokularında birikmesi

E) Kan basıncını yükseltmesi

53.

Ischemia-reperfusion injury of the lung frequently occurs after cardiopulmonary bypass, after pulmonary thromboendarterectomy, and especially after lung transplantation. Heparin is known to be protective in ischemia-reperfusion injury, but the risk for bleeding disorders may restrict its use in a variety of diseased conditions. Therefore, researchers tested the efficiency of nonanticoagulant N-acetyl heparin to protect from post-ischemic reperfusion injury of the lung. Pentobarbital-aneshetized, mechanically ventilated Lewis rats were heparinized (100IU/kg) before insertion of catheters. Additionally, animals received either heparin, NA heparin; or saline (control) before ischemia.

Parçaya göre, deney yapılan hayvanlara kontrol amacıyla verilen madde aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) N-asetil heparin

B) Heparin

C) Tuzlu su

D) Pentobarbital

E) Oksijen

54.

Ischemia-reperfusion injury of the lung frequently occurs after cardiopulmonary bypass, after pulmonary thromboendarterectomy, and especially after lung transplantation. Heparin is known to be protective in ischemia-reperfusion injury, but the risk for bleeding disorders may restrict its use in a variety of diseased conditions. Therefore, researchers tested the efficiency of nonanticoagulant N-acetyl heparin to protect from post-ischemic reperfusion injury of the lung. Pentobarbital-aneshetized, mechanically ventilated Lewis rats were heparinized (100IU/kg) before insertion of catheters. Additionally, animals received either heparin, NA heparin; or saline (control) before ischemia.

Parçanın ikinci cümlesinde geçen "its" adılı aşağıdakilerden hangisinin yerine kullanılmıştır?

A) Hastalık durumları

B) İskemi-perfüzyon süreci

C) Kanama bozukluğu

D) Heparin

E) Akciğer

55.

Ischemia-reperfusion injury of the lung frequently occurs after cardiopulmonary bypass, after pulmonary thromboendarterectomy, and especially after lung transplantation. Heparin is known to be protective in ischemia-reperfusion injury, but the risk for bleeding disorders may restrict its use in a variety of diseased conditions. Therefore, researchers tested the efficiency of nonanticoagulant N-acetyl heparin to protect from post-ischemic reperfusion injury of the lung. Pentobarbital-aneshetized, mechanically ventilated Lewis rats were heparinized (100IU/kg) before insertion of catheters. Additionally, animals received either heparin, NA heparin; or saline (control) before ischemia.

Parçanın üçüncü cümlesinde geçen "Therefore" sözcüğünün Türkçe karşılığı aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Neyse ki

B) Bu yüzden

C) Zaten

D) Oysa

E) Buna rağmen

56.

The purpose of this study was to assess whether the descriptive terminology and final assessment categories of the Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System (BI-RADS) lexicon can be used for breast carcinomas detected on MR imaging and to assess the inter- and intraobserver variabilities in the use of the descriptors and final assessment categories. In 82 patients, 101 masses, including 68 infiltrating carcinomas and 33 benign lesions, were interpreted independently by four radiologists and described by BI-RADS terminology with respect to mass shape and margin and BI-RADS final assesment categories. The enhancement pattern of the mass was also reported. In addition, two radiologists interpreted each case twice to evaluate interobserver variability. The final case set for analysis was the 68 infiltrating carcinomas. Most of the infiltrating carcinomas were described as irregular, speculated, and heterogeneously enhancing masses. The final impression of the 68 carcinomas was BI-RADS category 5 (highly suggestive of malignancy) in 41 (61%), category 4 (suspicious abnormality) in 24 (35%), and category 3 (probably benign) in three (4%).

Parçada sözü edilen çalışmaya kaç iyi huylu lezyon alınmıştır?

A) 33

B) 68

C) 82

D) 101

E) 169

57.

The purpose of this study was to assess whether the descriptive terminology and final assessment categories of the Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System (BI-RADS) lexicon can be used for breast carcinomas detected on MR imaging and to assess the inter- and intraobserver variabilities in the use of the descriptors and final assessment categories. In 82 patients, 101 masses, including 68 infiltrating carcinomas and 33 benign lesions, were interpreted independently by four radiologists and described by BI-RADS terminology with respect to mass shape and margin and BI-RADS final assesment categories. The enhancement pattern of the mass was also reported. In addition, two radiologists interpreted each case twice to evaluate interobserver variability. The final case set for analysis was the 68 infiltrating carcinomas. Most of the infiltrating carcinomas were described as irregular, speculated, and heterogeneously enhancing masses. The final impression of the 68 carcinomas was BI-RADS category 5 (highly suggestive of malignancy) in 41 (61%), category 4 (suspicious abnormality) in 24 (35%), and category 3 (probably benign) in three (4%).

Parçada sözü edilen çalışmada, meme dokusunda kitle hangi açılardan değerlendirilmiştir?

A) Büyüklük ve şekil

B) Şekil ve sınır

C) Yapı ve sınır

D) Yapı ve büyüklük

E) Sınır ve büyüklük

58.

The purpose of this study was to assess whether the descriptive terminology and final assessment categories of the Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System (BI-RADS) lexicon can be used for breast carcinomas detected on MR imaging and to assess the inter- and intraobserver variabilities in the use of the descriptors and final assessment categories. In 82 patients, 101 masses, including 68 infiltrating carcinomas and 33 benign lesions, were interpreted independently by four radiologists and described by BI-RADS terminology with respect to mass shape and margin and BI-RADS final assesment categories. The enhancement pattern of the mass was also reported. In addition, two radiologists interpreted each case twice to evaluate interobserver variability. The final case set for analysis was the 68 infiltrating carcinomas. Most of the infiltrating carcinomas were described as irregular, speculated, and heterogeneously enhancing masses. The final impression of the 68 carcinomas was BI-RADS category 5 (highly suggestive of malignancy) in 41 (61%), category 4 (suspicious abnormality) in 24 (35%), and category 3 (probably benign) in three (4%).

Parçaya göre, yapılan çalışmada kitlenin hangi özelliği ek olarak değerlendirilmiştir?

A) İlaçla yoğunluk biçimi

B) Damarlanma tarzı

C) Yoğunluk biçimi

D) Boyanma tarzı

E) Boyanma süresi

59.

The purpose of this study was to assess whether the descriptive terminology and final assessment categories of the Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System (BI-RADS) lexicon can be used for breast carcinomas detected on MR imaging and to assess the inter- and intraobserver variabilities in the use of the descriptors and final assessment categories. In 82 patients, 101 masses, including 68 infiltrating carcinomas and 33 benign lesions, were interpreted independently by four radiologists and described by BI-RADS terminology with respect to mass shape and margin and BI-RADS final assesment categories. The enhancement pattern of the mass was also reported. In addition, two radiologists interpreted each case twice to evaluate interobserver variability. The final case set for analysis was the 68 infiltrating carcinomas. Most of the infiltrating carcinomas were described as irregular, speculated, and heterogeneously enhancing masses. The final impression of the 68 carcinomas was BI-RADS category 5 (highly suggestive of malignancy) in 41 (61%), category 4 (suspicious abnormality) in 24 (35%), and category 3 (probably benign) in three (4%).

Parçada sözü edilen çalışmada gözlemciler arası farklılık hangi yöntemle değerlendirilmiştir?

A) Her olgu iki radyolog tarafından bir defa değerlendirilmiştir.

B) Dört radyolog her olguyu iki kez değerlendirmiştir.

C) İki radyolog her olguyu dört kez değerlendirmiştir.

D) Her radyolog her olguyu bir kez değerlendirmiştir.

E) İki radyolog her olguyu iki kez değerlendirmiştir.

60.

The purpose of this study was to assess whether the descriptive terminology and final assessment categories of the Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System (BI-RADS) lexicon can be used for breast carcinomas detected on MR imaging and to assess the inter- and intraobserver variabilities in the use of the descriptors and final assessment categories. In 82 patients, 101 masses, including 68 infiltrating carcinomas and 33 benign lesions, were interpreted independently by four radiologists and described by BI-RADS terminology with respect to mass shape and margin and BI-RADS final assesment categories. The enhancement pattern of the mass was also reported. In addition, two radiologists interpreted each case twice to evaluate interobserver variability. The final case set for analysis was the 68 infiltrating carcinomas. Most of the infiltrating carcinomas were described as irregular, speculated, and heterogeneously enhancing masses. The final impression of the 68 carcinomas was BI-RADS category 5 (highly suggestive of malignancy) in 41 (61%), category 4 (suspicious abnormality) in 24 (35%), and category 3 (probably benign) in three (4%).

Parçaya göre, BI-RADS sınıflamasına göre, kaç numaralı kategori en sık görülmüştür?

A) 5

B) 4

C) 3

D) 2

E) 1

61.

The common cold, also known as upper respiratory infection (URI) or acute coryza, is an acute, selflimited illness caused by a virus. Nasal symptoms including rhinorrhea is invariably present; sore/scratchy throat and/or cough may be present. Many myths surround the source of the virus causing colds. There are no normal viral flora of the respiratory tract in humans (one possible exception is human herpesvirus type 6 in saliva). In sharp contrast, luxuriant normal bacterial flora occur in the upper respiratory tract and mouth. Because viruses are not part of normal flora, the viruses that cause colds are not present in the host ready to be activated because “resistance” has been lowered by chilling, loss of sleep, or bad diet. Instead, the virus must be passed from another human in order to produce the cold. Colds are common because the viruses with few serotypes reinfect many times, and the viruses that infect an individual only once have multiple serotypes. Rhinoviruses cause 30 to 50% of colds in adults, and coronaviruses are responsible for 10 to 15%. Each of the other virus groups cause <5% of colds. Adults are susceptible to respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and parainfluenza virus, but the illness in adults is usually a cold rather than the more severe involvement seen in infants.

Parçada üst solunum yolu enfeksiyonuyla ilgili olarak aşağıdakilerden hangisi söylenmektedir?

A) Yavaş başlayabilir.

B) Daima ve hızla ilerler.

C) Virüslere bağlıdır.

D) Patojen bakterilere bağlıdır.

E) Doğal bakterilere bağlıdır.

62.

The common cold, also known as upper respiratory infection (URI) or acute coryza, is an acute, selflimited illness caused by a virus. Nasal symptoms including rhinorrhea is invariably present; sore/scratchy throat and/or cough may be present. Many myths surround the source of the virus causing colds. There are no normal viral flora of the respiratory tract in humans (one possible exception is human herpesvirus type 6 in saliva). In sharp contrast, luxuriant normal bacterial flora occur in the upper respiratory tract and mouth. Because viruses are not part of normal flora, the viruses that cause colds are not present in the host ready to be activated because “resistance” has been lowered by chilling, loss of sleep, or bad diet. Instead, the virus must be passed from another human in order to produce the cold. Colds are common because the viruses with few serotypes reinfect many times, and the viruses that infect an individual only once have multiple serotypes. Rhinoviruses cause 30 to 50% of colds in adults, and coronaviruses are responsible for 10 to 15%. Each of the other virus groups cause <5% of colds. Adults are susceptible to respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and parainfluenza virus, but the illness in adults is usually a cold rather than the more severe involvement seen in infants.

Parçada gribin belirtileri arasında aşağıdakilerden hangisi sayılmamıştır?

A) Burun akıntısı

B) Öksürük

C) Boğaz ağrısı

D) Burun tıkanıklığı

E) Boğazda tahriş hissi

63.

The common cold, also known as upper respiratory infection (URI) or acute coryza, is an acute, selflimited illness caused by a virus. Nasal symptoms including rhinorrhea is invariably present; sore/scratchy throat and/or cough may be present. Many myths surround the source of the virus causing colds. There are no normal viral flora of the respiratory tract in humans (one possible exception is human herpesvirus type 6 in saliva). In sharp contrast, luxuriant normal bacterial flora occur in the upper respiratory tract and mouth. Because viruses are not part of normal flora, the viruses that cause colds are not present in the host ready to be activated because “resistance” has been lowered by chilling, loss of sleep, or bad diet. Instead, the virus must be passed from another human in order to produce the cold. Colds are common because the viruses with few serotypes reinfect many times, and the viruses that infect an individual only once have multiple serotypes. Rhinoviruses cause 30 to 50% of colds in adults, and coronaviruses are responsible for 10 to 15%. Each of the other virus groups cause <5% of colds. Adults are susceptible to respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and parainfluenza virus, but the illness in adults is usually a cold rather than the more severe involvement seen in infants.

Parçaya göre, virüsler hangi yolla enfeksiyon yaratmaktadır?

A) Yetersiz diyetle aktive olarak

B) Başka bir insandan geçerek

C) Uykusuzlukla aktive olarak

D) Üşümeyle aktive olarak

E) Hayvanlardan geçerek

64.

The common cold, also known as upper respiratory infection (URI) or acute coryza, is an acute, selflimited illness caused by a virus. Nasal symptoms including rhinorrhea is invariably present; sore/scratchy throat and/or cough may be present. Many myths surround the source of the virus causing colds. There are no normal viral flora of the respiratory tract in humans (one possible exception is human herpesvirus type 6 in saliva). In sharp contrast, luxuriant normal bacterial flora occur in the upper respiratory tract and mouth. Because viruses are not part of normal flora, the viruses that cause colds are not present in the host ready to be activated because “resistance” has been lowered by chilling, loss of sleep, or bad diet. Instead, the virus must be passed from another human in order to produce the cold. Colds are common because the viruses with few serotypes reinfect many times, and the viruses that infect an individual only once have multiple serotypes. Rhinoviruses cause 30 to 50% of colds in adults, and coronaviruses are responsible for 10 to 15%. Each of the other virus groups cause <5% of colds. Adults are susceptible to respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and parainfluenza virus, but the illness in adults is usually a cold rather than the more severe involvement seen in infants.

Parçaya göre, aşağıdakilerden hangisi erişkinlerde en sık hastalık nedeni olan virüstür?

A) Adenovirüs

B) Koronavirüs

C) Parainfluenza virüs

D) İnfluenza virüs

E) Rinovirüs

65.

The common cold, also known as upper respiratory infection (URI) or acute coryza, is an acute, selflimited illness caused by a virus. Nasal symptoms including rhinorrhea is invariably present; sore/scratchy throat and/or cough may be present. Many myths surround the source of the virus causing colds. There are no normal viral flora of the respiratory tract in humans (one possible exception is human herpesvirus type 6 in saliva). In sharp contrast, luxuriant normal bacterial flora occur in the upper respiratory tract and mouth. Because viruses are not part of normal flora, the viruses that cause colds are not present in the host ready to be activated because “resistance” has been lowered by chilling, loss of sleep, or bad diet. Instead, the virus must be passed from another human in order to produce the cold. Colds are common because the viruses with few serotypes reinfect many times, and the viruses that infect an individual only once have multiple serotypes. Rhinoviruses cause 30 to 50% of colds in adults, and coronaviruses are responsible for 10 to 15%. Each of the other virus groups cause <5% of colds. Adults are susceptible to respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and parainfluenza virus, but the illness in adults is usually a cold rather than the more severe involvement seen in infants.

Parçaya göre, RSV ve parainfluenza virüs aşağıdaki grupların hangisinde daha ciddi hastalığa yol açar?

A) Bebekler

B) Erişkinler

C) Kadınlar

D) Yaşlılar

E) Gebeler

66.

Surveys made in the 1960s estimated the prevalence of gout at about 0.5 to 0.7% for men and about 0.1% for women. Prevalence has been increasing over the past two decades. Gout is the most common inflammatory arthritis in men over 40 in US. A US survey estimated 2.2 million cases of self-reported gout, about twice the physician-reported prevalence. Gout rarely occurs before puberty in males and seldom before menopause in females. Trends in serum urate values are consistent with this pattern. In normal children, serum urate averages 3.6 mg per decilitre in both genders. Levels rise at puberty, more so in males than in females. In US, the central 95% segment of the serum urate distribution ranges from 2.2 to 7.5 mg per decilitre in adult men and from 2.1 to 6.6 mg per decilitre in adult premenopausal women. Serum urate values increase with age; after menopause, mean values in women approach levels in men. Epidemiologic surveys have noted a trend toward increasing serum urate values in US in recent decades and significant variations among population groups, which reflect genetic and environmental factors. Obesity, alcohol consumption, and diuretic use are associated with hyperuricemia. The incidence of gout increases with the degree and duration of hyperuricemia; age, obesity, hypertension, and alcohol intake show much weaker relationships when serum urate is factored out.

Parçada gut hastalığının ABD’deki görülme sıklığıyla ilgili olarak aşağıdakilerden hangisi söylenmemektedir?

A) 1960’larda erkeklerde kadınlardan daha sık görülmekteydi.

B) Kendi hastalığını bildiren 2.2 milyon olgunun bulunduğu tahmin edilmektedir.

C) Kırk yaşın üstündeki erkeklerde en sık görülen yangılı eklem iltihabıdır.

D) Görülme sıklığı son on yıldır artmaktadır.

E) Doktorların bildirdiği olgu sayısı olguların yarısı kadardır.

67.

Surveys made in the 1960s estimated the prevalence of gout at about 0.5 to 0.7% for men and about 0.1% for women. Prevalence has been increasing over the past two decades. Gout is the most common inflammatory arthritis in men over 40 in US. A US survey estimated 2.2 million cases of self-reported gout, about twice the physician-reported prevalence. Gout rarely occurs before puberty in males and seldom before menopause in females. Trends in serum urate values are consistent with this pattern. In normal children, serum urate averages 3.6 mg per decilitre in both genders. Levels rise at puberty, more so in males than in females. In US, the central 95% segment of the serum urate distribution ranges from 2.2 to 7.5 mg per decilitre in adult men and from 2.1 to 6.6 mg per decilitre in adult premenopausal women. Serum urate values increase with age; after menopause, mean values in women approach levels in men. Epidemiologic surveys have noted a trend toward increasing serum urate values in US in recent decades and significant variations among population groups, which reflect genetic and environmental factors. Obesity, alcohol consumption, and diuretic use are associated with hyperuricemia. The incidence of gout increases with the degree and duration of hyperuricemia; age, obesity, hypertension, and alcohol intake show much weaker relationships when serum urate is factored out.

Parçada erkeklerde gut hastalığının hangi dönemde nadir görüldüğü söylenmektedir?

A) Ergenlikten önce

B) Ergenlikte

C) 20’li yaşlarda

D) 30’lu yaşlarda

E) 40’lı yaşlarda

68.

Surveys made in the 1960s estimated the prevalence of gout at about 0.5 to 0.7% for men and about 0.1% for women. Prevalence has been increasing over the past two decades. Gout is the most common inflammatory arthritis in men over 40 in US. A US survey estimated 2.2 million cases of self-reported gout, about twice the physician-reported prevalence. Gout rarely occurs before puberty in males and seldom before menopause in females. Trends in serum urate values are consistent with this pattern. In normal children, serum urate averages 3.6 mg per decilitre in both genders. Levels rise at puberty, more so in males than in females. In US, the central 95% segment of the serum urate distribution ranges from 2.2 to 7.5 mg per decilitre in adult men and from 2.1 to 6.6 mg per decilitre in adult premenopausal women. Serum urate values increase with age; after menopause, mean values in women approach levels in men. Epidemiologic surveys have noted a trend toward increasing serum urate values in US in recent decades and significant variations among population groups, which reflect genetic and environmental factors. Obesity, alcohol consumption, and diuretic use are associated with hyperuricemia. The incidence of gout increases with the degree and duration of hyperuricemia; age, obesity, hypertension, and alcohol intake show much weaker relationships when serum urate is factored out.

Parçaya göre, sağlıklı çocuklarda ortalama ürat değeri bir desilitrede kaç miligramdır?

A) 7.5

B) 6.6

C) 3.6

D) 2.2

E) 2.1

69.

Surveys made in the 1960s estimated the prevalence of gout at about 0.5 to 0.7% for men and about 0.1% for women. Prevalence has been increasing over the past two decades. Gout is the most common inflammatory arthritis in men over 40 in US. A US survey estimated 2.2 million cases of self-reported gout, about twice the physician-reported prevalence. Gout rarely occurs before puberty in males and seldom before menopause in females. Trends in serum urate values are consistent with this pattern. In normal children, serum urate averages 3.6 mg per decilitre in both genders. Levels rise at puberty, more so in males than in females. In US, the central 95% segment of the serum urate distribution ranges from 2.2 to 7.5 mg per decilitre in adult men and from 2.1 to 6.6 mg per decilitre in adult premenopausal women. Serum urate values increase with age; after menopause, mean values in women approach levels in men. Epidemiologic surveys have noted a trend toward increasing serum urate values in US in recent decades and significant variations among population groups, which reflect genetic and environmental factors. Obesity, alcohol consumption, and diuretic use are associated with hyperuricemia. The incidence of gout increases with the degree and duration of hyperuricemia; age, obesity, hypertension, and alcohol intake show much weaker relationships when serum urate is factored out.

Parçada sözü edilen ABD’deki epidemiyolojik araştırmalara göre, aşağıdakilerden hangisi doğrudur?

A) Çevresel etkenlerin gut oluşumuna katkısı yoktur.

B) Gut hastalığı kadınlarda daha çok görülmeye başlamıştır.

C) Beslenme alışkanlıkları ürat miktarını etkilemektedir.

D) Yüksek ürat düzeyine rağmen gut riski az olabilir.

E) Serum ürat düzeyleri son yıllarda artma eğilimindedir.

70.

Surveys made in the 1960s estimated the prevalence of gout at about 0.5 to 0.7% for men and about 0.1% for women. Prevalence has been increasing over the past two decades. Gout is the most common inflammatory arthritis in men over 40 in US. A US survey estimated 2.2 million cases of self-reported gout, about twice the physician-reported prevalence. Gout rarely occurs before puberty in males and seldom before menopause in females. Trends in serum urate values are consistent with this pattern. In normal children, serum urate averages 3.6 mg per decilitre in both genders. Levels rise at puberty, more so in males than in females. In US, the central 95% segment of the serum urate distribution ranges from 2.2 to 7.5 mg per decilitre in adult men and from 2.1 to 6.6 mg per decilitre in adult premenopausal women. Serum urate values increase with age; after menopause, mean values in women approach levels in men. Epidemiologic surveys have noted a trend toward increasing serum urate values in US in recent decades and significant variations among population groups, which reflect genetic and environmental factors. Obesity, alcohol consumption, and diuretic use are associated with hyperuricemia. The incidence of gout increases with the degree and duration of hyperuricemia; age, obesity, hypertension, and alcohol intake show much weaker relationships when serum urate is factored out.

Parçada aşağıdakilerden hangisinin ürat düzeyiyle ilgili olduğundan söz edilmemektedir?

A) Yaş

B) Obezite

C) Diüretik kullanımı

D) Böbrek yetmezliği

E) Alkol tüketimi

71.

Secreted antibodies are produced by plasma cells, which represent the terminal phase of differentiation of B lymphocytes. The latter are found in all peripheral lymphoid tissues and also in the circulating pool of lympocytes. Within their surface membranes, B cells have receptors that allow them to recognize foreign antigenetic determinants. These receptors are immunoglobulin molecules, and in the initial stages of differentiation are generally of the IgM and IgD classes. When stimulated by a specific antigen, in conjunction with appropriate cytokines, these B cells proliferate and secrete antibody. In the earliest stages of differentiation, B lymphocytes lack membrane immunoglobulin (mIg). However, these cells begin to express in their cytoplasm the µ chain, which is the heavy (H) chain of IgM. Later they produce the light (L) chain (either kappa [κ] or lambda [λ]) which allows IgM molecules to be expressed on the surface. The binding region on the mIg of each cell line is unique in its specificity and is identical to that of the antibody molecule that is to be secreted. This means that at a very early developmental stage, a given cell is locked into its own specificity. This process involves several gene rearrangements. B-cell activation, proliferation, and differentiation require a variety of cytokines. Perhaps the most important in humans is interleukin-2 (IL-2), which seems to play a central role in these events and thus facilitates the production of immunoglobulins of all isotopes. Although other cytokines (e.g., IL-4 and TGF-β) are identified as being able to amplify and modify antibody production, generally they cannot do this unless IL-2 is present.

Parçada B hücre reseptörleriyle ilgili olarak aşağıdakilerden hangisi söylenmemektedir?

A) Yüzey membranındadırlar.

B) Plazma hücresinde de bulunurlar.

C) İmmün globülin moleküllerdir.

D) Farklılaşmanın başında IgD ve IgM sınıfındadır.

E) Yabancı antijeni ayırt ederler.

72.

Secreted antibodies are produced by plasma cells, which represent the terminal phase of differentiation of B lymphocytes. The latter are found in all peripheral lymphoid tissues and also in the circulating pool of lympocytes. Within their surface membranes, B cells have receptors that allow them to recognize foreign antigenetic determinants. These receptors are immunoglobulin molecules, and in the initial stages of differentiation are generally of the IgM and IgD classes. When stimulated by a specific antigen, in conjunction with appropriate cytokines, these B cells proliferate and secrete antibody. In the earliest stages of differentiation, B lymphocytes lack membrane immunoglobulin (mIg). However, these cells begin to express in their cytoplasm the µ chain, which is the heavy (H) chain of IgM. Later they produce the light (L) chain (either kappa [κ] or lambda [λ]) which allows IgM molecules to be expressed on the surface. The binding region on the mIg of each cell line is unique in its specificity and is identical to that of the antibody molecule that is to be secreted. This means that at a very early developmental stage, a given cell is locked into its own specificity. This process involves several gene rearrangements. B-cell activation, proliferation, and differentiation require a variety of cytokines. Perhaps the most important in humans is interleukin-2 (IL-2), which seems to play a central role in these events and thus facilitates the production of immunoglobulins of all isotopes. Although other cytokines (e.g., IL-4 and TGF-β) are identified as being able to amplify and modify antibody production, generally they cannot do this unless IL-2 is present.

Parçaya göre, IgM moleküllerinin yüzeyde gösterilmesini sağlayan aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Stoplazmadaki derişim

B) µ zinciri

C) Hafif zincirler

D) Salgılama

E) Genlerin yeniden düzenlenmesi

73.

Secreted antibodies are produced by plasma cells, which represent the terminal phase of differentiation of B lymphocytes. The latter are found in all peripheral lymphoid tissues and also in the circulating pool of lympocytes. Within their surface membranes, B cells have receptors that allow them to recognize foreign antigenetic determinants. These receptors are immunoglobulin molecules, and in the initial stages of differentiation are generally of the IgM and IgD classes. When stimulated by a specific antigen, in conjunction with appropriate cytokines, these B cells proliferate and secrete antibody. In the earliest stages of differentiation, B lymphocytes lack membrane immunoglobulin (mIg). However, these cells begin to express in their cytoplasm the µ chain, which is the heavy (H) chain of IgM. Later they produce the light (L) chain (either kappa [κ] or lambda [λ]) which allows IgM molecules to be expressed on the surface. The binding region on the mIg of each cell line is unique in its specificity and is identical to that of the antibody molecule that is to be secreted. This means that at a very early developmental stage, a given cell is locked into its own specificity. This process involves several gene rearrangements. B-cell activation, proliferation, and differentiation require a variety of cytokines. Perhaps the most important in humans is interleukin-2 (IL-2), which seems to play a central role in these events and thus facilitates the production of immunoglobulins of all isotopes. Although other cytokines (e.g., IL-4 and TGF-β) are identified as being able to amplify and modify antibody production, generally they cannot do this unless IL-2 is present.

Parçaya göre, B hücre uyarımında merkezi rolü olan aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) IL-2

B) IL-4

C) TGF-B

D) Antijen

E) mIg

74.

Secreted antibodies are produced by plasma cells, which represent the terminal phase of differentiation of B lymphocytes. The latter are found in all peripheral lymphoid tissues and also in the circulating pool of lympocytes. Within their surface membranes, B cells have receptors that allow them to recognize foreign antigenetic determinants. These receptors are immunoglobulin molecules, and in the initial stages of differentiation are generally of the IgM and IgD classes. When stimulated by a specific antigen, in conjunction with appropriate cytokines, these B cells proliferate and secrete antibody. In the earliest stages of differentiation, B lymphocytes lack membrane immunoglobulin (mIg). However, these cells begin to express in their cytoplasm the µ chain, which is the heavy (H) chain of IgM. Later they produce the light (L) chain (either kappa [κ] or lambda [λ]) which allows IgM molecules to be expressed on the surface. The binding region on the mIg of each cell line is unique in its specificity and is identical to that of the antibody molecule that is to be secreted. This means that at a very early developmental stage, a given cell is locked into its own specificity. This process involves several gene rearrangements. B-cell activation, proliferation, and differentiation require a variety of cytokines. Perhaps the most important in humans is interleukin-2 (IL-2), which seems to play a central role in these events and thus facilitates the production of immunoglobulins of all isotopes. Although other cytokines (e.g., IL-4 and TGF-β) are identified as being able to amplify and modify antibody production, generally they cannot do this unless IL-2 is present.

Parçanın ikinci cümlesinde geçen "latter" adılı aşağıdakilerden hangisinin yerine kullanılmaktadır?

A) Antikorlar

B) B lenfositler

C) Plazma hücreleri

D) Salgılanma

E) Son dönem

75.

Secreted antibodies are produced by plasma cells, which represent the terminal phase of differentiation of B lymphocytes. The latter are found in all peripheral lymphoid tissues and also in the circulating pool of lympocytes. Within their surface membranes, B cells have receptors that allow them to recognize foreign antigenetic determinants. These receptors are immunoglobulin molecules, and in the initial stages of differentiation are generally of the IgM and IgD classes. When stimulated by a specific antigen, in conjunction with appropriate cytokines, these B cells proliferate and secrete antibody. In the earliest stages of differentiation, B lymphocytes lack membrane immunoglobulin (mIg). However, these cells begin to express in their cytoplasm the µ chain, which is the heavy (H) chain of IgM. Later they produce the light (L) chain (either kappa [κ] or lambda [λ]) which allows IgM molecules to be expressed on the surface. The binding region on the mIg of each cell line is unique in its specificity and is identical to that of the antibody molecule that is to be secreted. This means that at a very early developmental stage, a given cell is locked into its own specificity. This process involves several gene rearrangements. B-cell activation, proliferation, and differentiation require a variety of cytokines. Perhaps the most important in humans is interleukin-2 (IL-2), which seems to play a central role in these events and thus facilitates the production of immunoglobulins of all isotopes. Although other cytokines (e.g., IL-4 and TGF-β) are identified as being able to amplify and modify antibody production, generally they cannot do this unless IL-2 is present.

Parçanın beşinci cümlesinde geçen "in conjunction with" ifadesinin Türkçe karşılığı aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Öncelikli olarak

B) Peşinden

C) Birer birer

D) Beraberce

E) Karşılıklı

76.

A diagnosis of panic disorder is made after a medical etiology for the panic attacks has been ruled out. A variety of cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, and neurologic conditions can present with anxiety as the chief complaint. Patients with true panic disorder will often focus on one specific feature to the exclusion of others. For example, 20% of patients who present with syncope as a primary medical complaint have a primary diagnosis of a mood, anxiety, or subtanceabuse disorder, the most common being panic disorder. The differential diagnosis of panic disorder is complicated by a high rate of comorbidity with other psychiatric conditions, especially alcohol and benzodiazepine abuse, which patients initially use in an attempt at self-medication. Some 75% of panic disorder patients also satisfy criteria for major depression at some point in their illness. When the history is nonspecific, physical examination and focused laboratory testing must be used to rule out medical anxiety states, such as those resulting from pheochromocytoma, thyrotoxicosis or hypoglycemia. Electrocardiogram (ECG) and echocardiogram may detect some cardiovascular conditions associated with panic, such as paroxysmal atrial tachycardia and mitral valve prolapse.

Parçaya göre, anksiyete aşağıdaki sistem hastalıklarının hangisinde başlıca şikayet değildir?

A) Kalp damar

B) Endokrin

C) Solunum

D) Sinir

E) Sindirim

77.

A diagnosis of panic disorder is made after a medical etiology for the panic attacks has been ruled out. A variety of cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, and neurologic conditions can present with anxiety as the chief complaint. Patients with true panic disorder will often focus on one specific feature to the exclusion of others. For example, 20% of patients who present with syncope as a primary medical complaint have a primary diagnosis of a mood, anxiety, or subtanceabuse disorder, the most common being panic disorder. The differential diagnosis of panic disorder is complicated by a high rate of comorbidity with other psychiatric conditions, especially alcohol and benzodiazepine abuse, which patients initially use in an attempt at self-medication. Some 75% of panic disorder patients also satisfy criteria for major depression at some point in their illness. When the history is nonspecific, physical examination and focused laboratory testing must be used to rule out medical anxiety states, such as those resulting from pheochromocytoma, thyrotoxicosis or hypoglycemia. Electrocardiogram (ECG) and echocardiogram may detect some cardiovascular conditions associated with panic, such as paroxysmal atrial tachycardia and mitral valve prolapse.

Parçada senkop ile gelen hastaların % 20’sine konulan tanılar içinde en yaygın olanı aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Depresyon

B) Davranış bozukluğu

C) Madde bağımlılığı

D) Panik hastalık

E) Anksiyete

78.

A diagnosis of panic disorder is made after a medical etiology for the panic attacks has been ruled out. A variety of cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, and neurologic conditions can present with anxiety as the chief complaint. Patients with true panic disorder will often focus on one specific feature to the exclusion of others. For example, 20% of patients who present with syncope as a primary medical complaint have a primary diagnosis of a mood, anxiety, or subtanceabuse disorder, the most common being panic disorder. The differential diagnosis of panic disorder is complicated by a high rate of comorbidity with other psychiatric conditions, especially alcohol and benzodiazepine abuse, which patients initially use in an attempt at self-medication. Some 75% of panic disorder patients also satisfy criteria for major depression at some point in their illness. When the history is nonspecific, physical examination and focused laboratory testing must be used to rule out medical anxiety states, such as those resulting from pheochromocytoma, thyrotoxicosis or hypoglycemia. Electrocardiogram (ECG) and echocardiogram may detect some cardiovascular conditions associated with panic, such as paroxysmal atrial tachycardia and mitral valve prolapse.

Parçaya göre, panik hastalarının büyük çoğunluğu aşağıdakilerden hangisinin belirtilerini de göstermektedir?

A) Majör depresyon

B) Tirotoksikoz

C) Taşikardi

D) Alkolizm

E) Hipoglisemi

79.

A diagnosis of panic disorder is made after a medical etiology for the panic attacks has been ruled out. A variety of cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, and neurologic conditions can present with anxiety as the chief complaint. Patients with true panic disorder will often focus on one specific feature to the exclusion of others. For example, 20% of patients who present with syncope as a primary medical complaint have a primary diagnosis of a mood, anxiety, or subtanceabuse disorder, the most common being panic disorder. The differential diagnosis of panic disorder is complicated by a high rate of comorbidity with other psychiatric conditions, especially alcohol and benzodiazepine abuse, which patients initially use in an attempt at self-medication. Some 75% of panic disorder patients also satisfy criteria for major depression at some point in their illness. When the history is nonspecific, physical examination and focused laboratory testing must be used to rule out medical anxiety states, such as those resulting from pheochromocytoma, thyrotoxicosis or hypoglycemia. Electrocardiogram (ECG) and echocardiogram may detect some cardiovascular conditions associated with panic, such as paroxysmal atrial tachycardia and mitral valve prolapse.

Parçanın ikinci cümlesinde geçen "chief" sözcüğünün Türkçe karşılığı aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Sıra dışı

B) Özel

C) Belli başlı

D) Ayrıntılı

E) Farklı

80.

A diagnosis of panic disorder is made after a medical etiology for the panic attacks has been ruled out. A variety of cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, and neurologic conditions can present with anxiety as the chief complaint. Patients with true panic disorder will often focus on one specific feature to the exclusion of others. For example, 20% of patients who present with syncope as a primary medical complaint have a primary diagnosis of a mood, anxiety, or subtanceabuse disorder, the most common being panic disorder. The differential diagnosis of panic disorder is complicated by a high rate of comorbidity with other psychiatric conditions, especially alcohol and benzodiazepine abuse, which patients initially use in an attempt at self-medication. Some 75% of panic disorder patients also satisfy criteria for major depression at some point in their illness. When the history is nonspecific, physical examination and focused laboratory testing must be used to rule out medical anxiety states, such as those resulting from pheochromocytoma, thyrotoxicosis or hypoglycemia. Electrocardiogram (ECG) and echocardiogram may detect some cardiovascular conditions associated with panic, such as paroxysmal atrial tachycardia and mitral valve prolapse.

Parçanın beşinci cümlesinde geçen "attempt" sözcüğünün Türkçe karşılığı aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Çözüm

B) Başarı

C) Fırsat

D) Girişim

E) Olasılık

81.

Varicella (chickenpox) is a highly contagious disease. After continuing household exposure, as would occur in a family, almost all susceptibles are infected. The subclinical attack rate is believed to be no more than 4%. The results of nonhousehold exposure are less certain. Chickenpox may be most contagious the day prior to the onset of rash. Chickenpox is contagious for no more than 5 days after the apperance of the first lesion. Children may return to school at this time or earlier when the lesions are crusted. The incubation period is usually about 14 days. Ninety nine per cent of the cases occur 10 to 20 days following exposure. The disease is known to be spread by direct contact. Airborne spread also has been demonstrated, most notably in hospitals. Nosocomial spread of varicella has been well documented. Most cases of chickenpox occur in childhood. Most children contract chickenpox either in day care situations or shortly after they enter school.

Parçada varisella nasıl bir hastalık olarak nitelendirilmiştir?

A) Nadir görülen

B) Çok bulaşıcı

C) Hastane bakımı gerektiren

D) Erişkinlerde görülen

E) Yavaş gelişen

82.

Varicella (chickenpox) is a highly contagious disease. After continuing household exposure, as would occur in a family, almost all susceptibles are infected. The subclinical attack rate is believed to be no more than 4%. The results of nonhousehold exposure are less certain. Chickenpox may be most contagious the day prior to the onset of rash. Chickenpox is contagious for no more than 5 days after the apperance of the first lesion. Children may return to school at this time or earlier when the lesions are crusted. The incubation period is usually about 14 days. Ninety nine per cent of the cases occur 10 to 20 days following exposure. The disease is known to be spread by direct contact. Airborne spread also has been demonstrated, most notably in hospitals. Nosocomial spread of varicella has been well documented. Most cases of chickenpox occur in childhood. Most children contract chickenpox either in day care situations or shortly after they enter school.

Parçaya göre, varisellanın kısıtlı bulaşıcılık süresi aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Kuluçka dönemi

B) Döküntünün olduğu 14 gün

C) Belirtiler sürdükçe

D) İlk lezyondan sonraki ilk 5 gün

E) Etkene mâruz kaldıktan sonraki 10 gün

83.

Varicella (chickenpox) is a highly contagious disease. After continuing household exposure, as would occur in a family, almost all susceptibles are infected. The subclinical attack rate is believed to be no more than 4%. The results of nonhousehold exposure are less certain. Chickenpox may be most contagious the day prior to the onset of rash. Chickenpox is contagious for no more than 5 days after the apperance of the first lesion. Children may return to school at this time or earlier when the lesions are crusted. The incubation period is usually about 14 days. Ninety nine per cent of the cases occur 10 to 20 days following exposure. The disease is known to be spread by direct contact. Airborne spread also has been demonstrated, most notably in hospitals. Nosocomial spread of varicella has been well documented. Most cases of chickenpox occur in childhood. Most children contract chickenpox either in day care situations or shortly after they enter school.

Parçaya göre, hangi durumda varisella olan çocuklar daha erken okula dönebilirler?

A) İzolasyon sağlanırsa her zaman

B) Belirtiler oluştuktan bir hafta sonra

C) Kuluçka dönemini bitirince

D) Yaralar kabuk tuttuktan 5 gün sonra

E) Yaralar kabuk tutunca

84.

Varicella (chickenpox) is a highly contagious disease. After continuing household exposure, as would occur in a family, almost all susceptibles are infected. The subclinical attack rate is believed to be no more than 4%. The results of nonhousehold exposure are less certain. Chickenpox may be most contagious the day prior to the onset of rash. Chickenpox is contagious for no more than 5 days after the apperance of the first lesion. Children may return to school at this time or earlier when the lesions are crusted. The incubation period is usually about 14 days. Ninety nine per cent of the cases occur 10 to 20 days following exposure. The disease is known to be spread by direct contact. Airborne spread also has been demonstrated, most notably in hospitals. Nosocomial spread of varicella has been well documented. Most cases of chickenpox occur in childhood. Most children contract chickenpox either in day care situations or shortly after they enter school.

Parçada varisellanın bulaşmasıyla ilgili olarak aşağıdakilerden hangisi söylenmemiştir?

A) Hastane ortamında bulaşabilir.

B) Doğrudan temasla geçer.

C) Hava yoluyla da bulaşır.

D) Hastalığı geçirmemiş yetişkinlere özellikle bulaşır.

E) Çocuklara çoğunlukla okulda bulaşır.

85.

Varicella (chickenpox) is a highly contagious disease. After continuing household exposure, as would occur in a family, almost all susceptibles are infected. The subclinical attack rate is believed to be no more than 4%. The results of nonhousehold exposure are less certain. Chickenpox may be most contagious the day prior to the onset of rash. Chickenpox is contagious for no more than 5 days after the apperance of the first lesion. Children may return to school at this time or earlier when the lesions are crusted. The incubation period is usually about 14 days. Ninety nine per cent of the cases occur 10 to 20 days following exposure. The disease is known to be spread by direct contact. Airborne spread also has been demonstrated, most notably in hospitals. Nosocomial spread of varicella has been well documented. Most cases of chickenpox occur in childhood. Most children contract chickenpox either in day care situations or shortly after they enter school.

Parçanın beşinci cümlesinde geçen "onset" sözcüğünün Türkçe karşılığı aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Başlama

B) Yayılma

C) Gelişme

D) İyileşme

E) Artma

86.

Axonal pathology has recently been stressed as a cause of neurologic disability in multiple sclerosis (MS). In cerebral MS lesions, the number of transected axons correlates with the degree of inflammation and occurs from disease beginning. In spinal cord lesions from patients with long disease duration, total axon numbers can be reduced by as much as 80%. Axonal damage in MS is also indicated by in vivo MRS data describing reduced levels of the neuron-specific marker N-acetyl aspartate (NAA) in MS brains. Decreases in MRSmeasured brain NAA in patients with MS correlate with increased disability and disease duration. In chronic MS lesions, decreased NAA correlates with axonal loss. CNS axons rapidly undergo irreversible degeneration distal to the site of transection. In contrast, the myelin internodes that surround these distal degenerating axons can persist for years after the injury, and may appear normal histologically or on MRI scans. Reduced NAA has been observed in regions of MS brain that appear normal by conventional MRI, but the explanations for this finding has not been established yet. It is possible that NAA reductions in normal-appearing white matter (NAWM) represent axonal degeneration distal to the MS lesion. Consistent with this explanation is decreased axonal densities by 19 to 57% in NAWM from patients with secondary progressive MS (SPMS). However, NAA alterations remote from MS lesions can terminate with time, indicating that reduced NAA may also reflect reversible axonal dysfunction or metabolic changes due to CNS inflammation.

Parçada MS’deki akson hasarıyla ilgili olarak aşağıdakilerden hangisi söylenmemektedir?

A) NAA azalması ile belirlenebilir.

B) Biyokimyasal yolla belirlenemez.

C) Hastalığın başlangıcından itibaren oluşur.

D) Enflamasyonla ilişkilidir.

E) Toplam akson sayısının % 80’i azalabilir.

87.

Axonal pathology has recently been stressed as a cause of neurologic disability in multiple sclerosis (MS). In cerebral MS lesions, the number of transected axons correlates with the degree of inflammation and occurs from disease beginning. In spinal cord lesions from patients with long disease duration, total axon numbers can be reduced by as much as 80%. Axonal damage in MS is also indicated by in vivo MRS data describing reduced levels of the neuron-specific marker N-acetyl aspartate (NAA) in MS brains. Decreases in MRSmeasured brain NAA in patients with MS correlate with increased disability and disease duration. In chronic MS lesions, decreased NAA correlates with axonal loss. CNS axons rapidly undergo irreversible degeneration distal to the site of transection. In contrast, the myelin internodes that surround these distal degenerating axons can persist for years after the injury, and may appear normal histologically or on MRI scans. Reduced NAA has been observed in regions of MS brain that appear normal by conventional MRI, but the explanations for this finding has not been established yet. It is possible that NAA reductions in normal-appearing white matter (NAWM) represent axonal degeneration distal to the MS lesion. Consistent with this explanation is decreased axonal densities by 19 to 57% in NAWM from patients with secondary progressive MS (SPMS). However, NAA alterations remote from MS lesions can terminate with time, indicating that reduced NAA may also reflect reversible axonal dysfunction or metabolic changes due to CNS inflammation.

Parçada histolojik veya MRI ile incelemede normal göründüğü söylenen aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Düğümler arası myelin

B) Dejenere aksonlar

C) Yangılı bölgeler

D) Distal aksonlar

E) Omurilik dokusu

88.

Axonal pathology has recently been stressed as a cause of neurologic disability in multiple sclerosis (MS). In cerebral MS lesions, the number of transected axons correlates with the degree of inflammation and occurs from disease beginning. In spinal cord lesions from patients with long disease duration, total axon numbers can be reduced by as much as 80%. Axonal damage in MS is also indicated by in vivo MRS data describing reduced levels of the neuron-specific marker N-acetyl aspartate (NAA) in MS brains. Decreases in MRSmeasured brain NAA in patients with MS correlate with increased disability and disease duration. In chronic MS lesions, decreased NAA correlates with axonal loss. CNS axons rapidly undergo irreversible degeneration distal to the site of transection. In contrast, the myelin internodes that surround these distal degenerating axons can persist for years after the injury, and may appear normal histologically or on MRI scans. Reduced NAA has been observed in regions of MS brain that appear normal by conventional MRI, but the explanations for this finding has not been established yet. It is possible that NAA reductions in normal-appearing white matter (NAWM) represent axonal degeneration distal to the MS lesion. Consistent with this explanation is decreased axonal densities by 19 to 57% in NAWM from patients with secondary progressive MS (SPMS). However, NAA alterations remote from MS lesions can terminate with time, indicating that reduced NAA may also reflect reversible axonal dysfunction or metabolic changes due to CNS inflammation.

Parçada hangi bulgunun açıklanmasının henüz yapılamadığı söylenmektedir?

A) Myelin tabakasının NAA azalmasına paralel kaybı

B) Normal olan beyaz maddenin MS lezyonlarının gerisinde kalması

C) Akson yoğunluğunun sekonder progresif bölgede azalmış olması

D) MS’deki akson dejenerasyonunun yavaş ilerlediği

E) MS’li beyin bölgelerinde NAA azalmasının MRI ile normal görünmesi

89.

Axonal pathology has recently been stressed as a cause of neurologic disability in multiple sclerosis (MS). In cerebral MS lesions, the number of transected axons correlates with the degree of inflammation and occurs from disease beginning. In spinal cord lesions from patients with long disease duration, total axon numbers can be reduced by as much as 80%. Axonal damage in MS is also indicated by in vivo MRS data describing reduced levels of the neuron-specific marker N-acetyl aspartate (NAA) in MS brains. Decreases in MRSmeasured brain NAA in patients with MS correlate with increased disability and disease duration. In chronic MS lesions, decreased NAA correlates with axonal loss. CNS axons rapidly undergo irreversible degeneration distal to the site of transection. In contrast, the myelin internodes that surround these distal degenerating axons can persist for years after the injury, and may appear normal histologically or on MRI scans. Reduced NAA has been observed in regions of MS brain that appear normal by conventional MRI, but the explanations for this finding has not been established yet. It is possible that NAA reductions in normal-appearing white matter (NAWM) represent axonal degeneration distal to the MS lesion. Consistent with this explanation is decreased axonal densities by 19 to 57% in NAWM from patients with secondary progressive MS (SPMS). However, NAA alterations remote from MS lesions can terminate with time, indicating that reduced NAA may also reflect reversible axonal dysfunction or metabolic changes due to CNS inflammation.

Parçaya göre, tersinir akson işlev kaybını gösteren aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) MRI bulguları

B) Metabolik değişimler

C) Merkezi sinir sisteminde yangı

D) NAA değişimlerinin durması

E) Histolojik veriler

90.

Axonal pathology has recently been stressed as a cause of neurologic disability in multiple sclerosis (MS). In cerebral MS lesions, the number of transected axons correlates with the degree of inflammation and occurs from disease beginning. In spinal cord lesions from patients with long disease duration, total axon numbers can be reduced by as much as 80%. Axonal damage in MS is also indicated by in vivo MRS data describing reduced levels of the neuron-specific marker N-acetyl aspartate (NAA) in MS brains. Decreases in MRSmeasured brain NAA in patients with MS correlate with increased disability and disease duration. In chronic MS lesions, decreased NAA correlates with axonal loss. CNS axons rapidly undergo irreversible degeneration distal to the site of transection. In contrast, the myelin internodes that surround these distal degenerating axons can persist for years after the injury, and may appear normal histologically or on MRI scans. Reduced NAA has been observed in regions of MS brain that appear normal by conventional MRI, but the explanations for this finding has not been established yet. It is possible that NAA reductions in normal-appearing white matter (NAWM) represent axonal degeneration distal to the MS lesion. Consistent with this explanation is decreased axonal densities by 19 to 57% in NAWM from patients with secondary progressive MS (SPMS). However, NAA alterations remote from MS lesions can terminate with time, indicating that reduced NAA may also reflect reversible axonal dysfunction or metabolic changes due to CNS inflammation.

Parçanın on birinci cümlesinde geçen "Consistent" ifadesinin Türkçe karşılığı aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Sabit

B) Uyumlu

C) İlişkin

D) Göreceli

E) Yönelik

91.

Infection with the hepatitis C virus (HCV) accounts for approximately 20% of cases with acute hepatitis, 70% of chronic hepatitis, 40% of end-stage cirrhosis, 60% of hepacellular carcinoma, and 30% of liver transplantations. Interferon (IFN)-α/ribavirin combination therapy of chronic hepatitis C is successful in only 40% of patients, expensive and associated with significant side effects. Therefore, the design of efficient vaccines to prevent new chronic infections and to treat them is urgently needed. Whereas neutralizing antibodies that convey long-lasting protection against infections with different HCV strains have not been identified, clearance of acute HCV infection has been reported to be associated with a vigorous cellular immune response against nonstructural HCV proteins. In particular, HCV-specific cytotoxic CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic T lymphocytes[CTLs]) that recognize intracellularly synthesized antigens on major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules are thought to be key effector cells to control the infection and persist for decades after recovery.

Parçada sözü edilen Interferon-α/ribavirin tedavisi hepatit C hastalarının yüzde kaçında başarılı olmaktadır?

A) 20

B) 30

C) 40

D) 60

E) 70

92.

Infection with the hepatitis C virus (HCV) accounts for approximately 20% of cases with acute hepatitis, 70% of chronic hepatitis, 40% of end-stage cirrhosis, 60% of hepacellular carcinoma, and 30% of liver transplantations. Interferon (IFN)-α/ribavirin combination therapy of chronic hepatitis C is successful in only 40% of patients, expensive and associated with significant side effects. Therefore, the design of efficient vaccines to prevent new chronic infections and to treat them is urgently needed. Whereas neutralizing antibodies that convey long-lasting protection against infections with different HCV strains have not been identified, clearance of acute HCV infection has been reported to be associated with a vigorous cellular immune response against nonstructural HCV proteins. In particular, HCV-specific cytotoxic CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic T lymphocytes[CTLs]) that recognize intracellularly synthesized antigens on major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules are thought to be key effector cells to control the infection and persist for decades after recovery.

Parçada aşağıdakilerden hangisinin acilen gerekli olduğundan söz edilmektedir?

A) Yeni ilaçlar araştırılmasının

B) Antikor üretilmesinin

C) Hepatit C virüsünün tiplendirilmesinin

D) Etkin aşılar hazırlanmasının

E) Bağışıklık sisteminin uyarılmasının

93.

Infection with the hepatitis C virus (HCV) accounts for approximately 20% of cases with acute hepatitis, 70% of chronic hepatitis, 40% of end-stage cirrhosis, 60% of hepacellular carcinoma, and 30% of liver transplantations. Interferon (IFN)-α/ribavirin combination therapy of chronic hepatitis C is successful in only 40% of patients, expensive and associated with significant side effects. Therefore, the design of efficient vaccines to prevent new chronic infections and to treat them is urgently needed. Whereas neutralizing antibodies that convey long-lasting protection against infections with different HCV strains have not been identified, clearance of acute HCV infection has been reported to be associated with a vigorous cellular immune response against nonstructural HCV proteins. In particular, HCV-specific cytotoxic CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic T lymphocytes[CTLs]) that recognize intracellularly synthesized antigens on major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules are thought to be key effector cells to control the infection and persist for decades after recovery.

Parçada HCV enfeksiyonuna verilen bağışıklık cevabının neye karşı olduğundan söz edilmektedir?

A) MHC moleküllerine

B) Yapısal olmayan HCV proteinlerine

C) Farklı HCV türlerine

D) HCV yüzey moleküllerine

E) Viral antijenlere

94.

Infection with the hepatitis C virus (HCV) accounts for approximately 20% of cases with acute hepatitis, 70% of chronic hepatitis, 40% of end-stage cirrhosis, 60% of hepacellular carcinoma, and 30% of liver transplantations. Interferon (IFN)-α/ribavirin combination therapy of chronic hepatitis C is successful in only 40% of patients, expensive and associated with significant side effects. Therefore, the design of efficient vaccines to prevent new chronic infections and to treat them is urgently needed. Whereas neutralizing antibodies that convey long-lasting protection against infections with different HCV strains have not been identified, clearance of acute HCV infection has been reported to be associated with a vigorous cellular immune response against nonstructural HCV proteins. In particular, HCV-specific cytotoxic CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic T lymphocytes[CTLs]) that recognize intracellularly synthesized antigens on major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules are thought to be key effector cells to control the infection and persist for decades after recovery.

Parçada uzun süre kalıcı olduğundan söz edilen aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Hücresel bağışıklık

B) HCV proteinleri

C) MHC molekülleri

D) DNA aşıları

E) CTL’ler

95.

Infection with the hepatitis C virus (HCV) accounts for approximately 20% of cases with acute hepatitis, 70% of chronic hepatitis, 40% of end-stage cirrhosis, 60% of hepacellular carcinoma, and 30% of liver transplantations. Interferon (IFN)-α/ribavirin combination therapy of chronic hepatitis C is successful in only 40% of patients, expensive and associated with significant side effects. Therefore, the design of efficient vaccines to prevent new chronic infections and to treat them is urgently needed. Whereas neutralizing antibodies that convey long-lasting protection against infections with different HCV strains have not been identified, clearance of acute HCV infection has been reported to be associated with a vigorous cellular immune response against nonstructural HCV proteins. In particular, HCV-specific cytotoxic CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic T lymphocytes[CTLs]) that recognize intracellularly synthesized antigens on major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules are thought to be key effector cells to control the infection and persist for decades after recovery.

Parçanın ilk cümlesinde geçen "accounts for" ifadesinin Türkçe karşılığı aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Yansıtır

B) Sorumludur

C) Bağımlıdır

D) Bulunur

E) Etkiler

96.

“Zoonoses” are most simply defined as human infections derived from animals. There are approximately 200 different infectious agents that cause disease in humans and fulfill the definition of a zoonosis. Man’s so-called best friend, the dog has been targeted as facilitating the transmission of more than 50 different infectious agents. The risk of developing a zoonosis is increased by direct animal contact, insect bites, contact with previously infected human blood products, and contact with and ingestion of infectious agents transmitted by animalcontaminated water and insufficiently cooked meat, eggs, dairy products, fish and shellfish. Raw shellfish are the garbage filters of the ocean and can transmit at least 25 different infectious or toxic illnesses to humans. Immunocompromised hosts such as splenectomized patients, transplant patients, and AIDS patients, as well as pregnant women and their fetuses, are at high risk of developing clinical disease when exposed to these various infectious agents.

Parçada, zoonoz riskini artıran durumlar arasında aşağıdakilerden hangisi sayılmamıştır?

A) Enfekte olmuş kan ürünleriyle temas

B) Hayvanlarla doğrudan temas

C) Böcek ısırmaları

D) Hava yoluyla bulaşma

E) Hayvanlar tarafından kirletilmiş suyla temas

97.

“Zoonoses” are most simply defined as human infections derived from animals. There are approximately 200 different infectious agents that cause disease in humans and fulfill the definition of a zoonosis. Man’s so-called best friend, the dog has been targeted as facilitating the transmission of more than 50 different infectious agents. The risk of developing a zoonosis is increased by direct animal contact, insect bites, contact with previously infected human blood products, and contact with and ingestion of infectious agents transmitted by animalcontaminated water and insufficiently cooked meat, eggs, dairy products, fish and shellfish. Raw shellfish are the garbage filters of the ocean and can transmit at least 25 different infectious or toxic illnesses to humans. Immunocompromised hosts such as splenectomized patients, transplant patients, and AIDS patients, as well as pregnant women and their fetuses, are at high risk of developing clinical disease when exposed to these various infectious agents.

Aşağıdakilerden hangisi parçada, yeterince pişmeyince zoonoz riskini artırdığı söylenen ürünlerden biri değildir?

A) Et

B) Yumurta

C) Süt ürünleri

D) Balık

E) Tavuk

98.

“Zoonoses” are most simply defined as human infections derived from animals. There are approximately 200 different infectious agents that cause disease in humans and fulfill the definition of a zoonosis. Man’s so-called best friend, the dog has been targeted as facilitating the transmission of more than 50 different infectious agents. The risk of developing a zoonosis is increased by direct animal contact, insect bites, contact with previously infected human blood products, and contact with and ingestion of infectious agents transmitted by animalcontaminated water and insufficiently cooked meat, eggs, dairy products, fish and shellfish. Raw shellfish are the garbage filters of the ocean and can transmit at least 25 different infectious or toxic illnesses to humans. Immunocompromised hosts such as splenectomized patients, transplant patients, and AIDS patients, as well as pregnant women and their fetuses, are at high risk of developing clinical disease when exposed to these various infectious agents.

Parçada okyanusların çöp filtresi olarak nitelenen aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Karides

B) İstakoz

C) Kabuklu deniz hayvanları

D) Su yengeci

E) Keseli balıklar

99.

“Zoonoses” are most simply defined as human infections derived from animals. There are approximately 200 different infectious agents that cause disease in humans and fulfill the definition of a zoonosis. Man’s so-called best friend, the dog has been targeted as facilitating the transmission of more than 50 different infectious agents. The risk of developing a zoonosis is increased by direct animal contact, insect bites, contact with previously infected human blood products, and contact with and ingestion of infectious agents transmitted by animalcontaminated water and insufficiently cooked meat, eggs, dairy products, fish and shellfish. Raw shellfish are the garbage filters of the ocean and can transmit at least 25 different infectious or toxic illnesses to humans. Immunocompromised hosts such as splenectomized patients, transplant patients, and AIDS patients, as well as pregnant women and their fetuses, are at high risk of developing clinical disease when exposed to these various infectious agents.

Aşağıdakilerden hangisi, parçada enfeksiyon ajanlarına mâruz kaldığı takdirde klinik hastalık riski taşıdığı söylenen gruplardan biri değildir?

A) Gebeler

B) Böbreği alınmış olanlar

C) Fetuslar

D) AIDS hastaları

E) Organ nakli yapılmış olanlar

100.

“Zoonoses” are most simply defined as human infections derived from animals. There are approximately 200 different infectious agents that cause disease in humans and fulfill the definition of a zoonosis. Man’s so-called best friend, the dog has been targeted as facilitating the transmission of more than 50 different infectious agents. The risk of developing a zoonosis is increased by direct animal contact, insect bites, contact with previously infected human blood products, and contact with and ingestion of infectious agents transmitted by animalcontaminated water and insufficiently cooked meat, eggs, dairy products, fish and shellfish. Raw shellfish are the garbage filters of the ocean and can transmit at least 25 different infectious or toxic illnesses to humans. Immunocompromised hosts such as splenectomized patients, transplant patients, and AIDS patients, as well as pregnant women and their fetuses, are at high risk of developing clinical disease when exposed to these various infectious agents.

Parçanın beşinci cümlesinde geçen "can transmit" ifadesinin Türkçe karşılığı aşağıdakilerden hangisidir?

A) Arttırabilir

B) Engelleyebilir

C) Kolaylaştırabilir

D) Bulaştırabilir

E) Koruyabilir

Cevap Anahtarı

1. Soru Cevabı

E

2. Soru Cevabı

A

3. Soru Cevabı

C

4. Soru Cevabı

D

5. Soru Cevabı

A

6. Soru Cevabı

E

7. Soru Cevabı

A

8. Soru Cevabı

E

9. Soru Cevabı

B

10. Soru Cevabı

A

11. Soru Cevabı

E

12. Soru Cevabı

B

13. Soru Cevabı

D

14. Soru Cevabı

C

15. Soru Cevabı

E

16. Soru Cevabı

D

17. Soru Cevabı

A

18. Soru Cevabı

C

19. Soru Cevabı

A

20. Soru Cevabı

B

21. Soru Cevabı

E

22. Soru Cevabı

D

23. Soru Cevabı

A

24. Soru Cevabı

C

25. Soru Cevabı

D

26. Soru Cevabı

E

27. Soru Cevabı

A

28. Soru Cevabı

E

29. Soru Cevabı

D

30. Soru Cevabı

E

31. Soru Cevabı

B

32. Soru Cevabı

C

33. Soru Cevabı

D

34. Soru Cevabı

B

35. Soru Cevabı

C

36. Soru Cevabı

E

37. Soru Cevabı

C

38. Soru Cevabı

D

39. Soru Cevabı

B

40. Soru Cevabı

D

41. Soru Cevabı

B

42. Soru Cevabı

C

43. Soru Cevabı

A

44. Soru Cevabı

B

45. Soru Cevabı

C

46. Soru Cevabı

E

47. Soru Cevabı

A

48. Soru Cevabı

D

49. Soru Cevabı

C

50. Soru Cevabı

B

51. Soru Cevabı

E

52. Soru Cevabı

A

53. Soru Cevabı

C

54. Soru Cevabı

D

55. Soru Cevabı

B

56. Soru Cevabı

A

57. Soru Cevabı

B

58. Soru Cevabı

D

59. Soru Cevabı

E

60. Soru Cevabı

A

61. Soru Cevabı

C

62. Soru Cevabı

D

63. Soru Cevabı

B

64. Soru Cevabı

E

65. Soru Cevabı

A

66. Soru Cevabı

D

67. Soru Cevabı

A

68. Soru Cevabı

C

69. Soru Cevabı

E

70. Soru Cevabı

D

71. Soru Cevabı

B

72. Soru Cevabı

C

73. Soru Cevabı

A

74. Soru Cevabı

B

75. Soru Cevabı

D

76. Soru Cevabı

E

77. Soru Cevabı

D

78. Soru Cevabı

A

79. Soru Cevabı

C

80. Soru Cevabı

D

81. Soru Cevabı

B

82. Soru Cevabı

D

83. Soru Cevabı

E

84. Soru Cevabı

D

85. Soru Cevabı

A

86. Soru Cevabı

B

87. Soru Cevabı

A

88. Soru Cevabı

E

89. Soru Cevabı

D

90. Soru Cevabı

B

91. Soru Cevabı

C

92. Soru Cevabı

D

93. Soru Cevabı

B

94. Soru Cevabı

E

95. Soru Cevabı

B

96. Soru Cevabı

D

97. Soru Cevabı

E

98. Soru Cevabı

C

99. Soru Cevabı

B

100. Soru Cevabı

D
Brave Browser

Günün Tıbbi Kelimeleri

To Make Ill : Hasta etmek, hastalandırmak.

Abdomen Obstipum : 1. Vücudun göğüs kafesi ile pelvis arasında kalan ve insanların ve diğer memelilerin mide, bağırsak, karaciğer, dalak ve pankreasını kaplayan kısmı. Ayrıca göbe...

Albumosemia : n. Kanda albümoz bulunması, albümozemi.

Opia : suff. Görme anlamına sonek.

Ophthalmencephalon : n. Retina görme siniri ve beyin görme cihazı.

Intraprotoplasmic : a. Protoplazma içi, protoplazma içinde.

En Çok Aranan Tıp Terimleri

Dilate : v. Genişletmek, büyütmek, açmak (Daralmış bir deliği, kanalı veya boşluğu).n. Genişleme,

Lumen : n. (pl. lumina). Tüp şeklinde organın içindeki boşluk.

Pelvis : n. Pelvis: 1. Kalça kemiği ve sakrumdan meydana gelmiş olan kalça kuşağı, leğen, havsala; 2. Böbrek toplayıcı kanalların açıldıkları kese, böbrek pelvisi.

Mental : a. Mentalis: 1. Zihni, akli mantal, bilince ait; 2. Çeneucuna ait.

Anus : n. 1. anus. makat; 2. Ağız, medhal, delik; 3. Psikiyatride sindirim kanalının başlangıç (proximal) noktası (ağız) ve bitim kısmı (anus) özellikle bazı psikopati...

Antrum : n. (pl. antra) 1. Oyuk, mağar,a sinüs: içi hava dolu ve duvarları mukoza ile örtülü kemik boşluğu; 2. Midenin pilorik ucundaki şişlik.

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